https://english.stackexchange.com/a/30392/50720 motivated this question:
To quote from the clear explanation:
The rule for what [Fowler] and others consider technically right is ... that "to be" should link two noun phrases of the same case,
whether this be nominative or accusative. ...
Sometimes in English, though, "to be" does seem to have the force of a transitive verb. ... The occurrence of "It's me", etc., is no doubt
partly due to this perceived transitive force. ...
The final factor is the traditional use of Latin grammatical concepts to teach English grammar.
Grammar Girl similarly broaches this rule, but does not explain it:
...The traditional grammar rule states when a pronoun follows a linking verb, such as "is," the pronoun should be in the subject case. It’s also called the “nominative.” ...
So I'd like to ask about the genesis or rationale for this rule? How can I rationalise it?
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