On christianity.stackexchange.com I asked this question:
"Is it true that John Paul the Second restored the practice of selling indulgences in 2000?"
and one supporter suggested that I replace selling with sold as in this way it will sound less accusatory.
While not being a native English speaker and at the same not doubting a bit about that supporter's command of English, I am still puzzled here about how changing the tense of the verb can make things sound less accusatory. In fact, I don't quite see how the question is accusatory in the first place. Perhaps, there is some subtlety in English grammar here that I am not aware about.
Can anyone, please, explain this to me?
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