I have not been able to find an explanation for this use of an infinitive without to:
The first thing I do in the morning is go to the bathroom.
The first thing I do in the morning is open my eyes.
The first thing I do in the morning is turn off the alarm clock.
Infinitives without to are used in the following cases:
-After modal auxiliary verbs (We can managed it)
-After do (I do admit I was wrong)
-After certain verbs like let, make, see... (They made me wait)
-After rather, better and had better (I would rather go alone)
-After and, or, except, but, than, as and like (It is as easy to smile as frown)
-After why (Why pay more at other shops?)
[ http://www.perfectyourenglish.com/grammar/infinitives-without-to.htm ]
I have found no mention of using an infinite without to after the verb to be. Are the examples above a special case? Are they very colloquial? Or are they incorrect?
Answer
In this case actually infinitive with and without "to" is possible (and I was surprised that "to" is possible here, as it sounds quite uncommon to me).
From bbc.co.uk:
There are one or two other structures where to-infinitive and the bare infinitive are both possible. Expressions with do or did, such as what I've done or all I did can follow either pattern.
I hate shopping so what I've done is (to) order a new computer over the Internet.
All I did was (to) suggest that she should lend him no more money. I didn't insist on it.
The examples you gave are not incorrect in any way, and such structures are commonly used.
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