Monday, November 5, 2012

possessives - “A similar hat to Jane” vs “A hat similar to Jane’s”




Of late I have noticed British people using the following sort of construct:




John and Jane make such a cute couple because John always wears a similar hat to Jane.




To my ear, that is ungrammatical, or at least nonsensical, because John seems to have mistaken his wife for a hat! John’s hat cannot be similar to Jane; it can only be similar to Jane’s hat.



For me, that sentence must therefore be recast as this:





John and Jane make such a cute couple because John always wears a hat similar to Jane’s.




That way the hat is no longer similar to her, merely to hers.



Is the former formulation actually grammatical, or is it a common mistake or simple carelessness? Doesn’t it confuse people? Is it fit for formal writing? How long has this been going on?



To the American ear, it sounds really messed up, like it is making a wrong comparison. It’s like they have forgotten about the possessive case, which is the only one that makes sense here.







Edit



Here are actual “similar X to Y” instances by British authors, where one would expect to find “Y’s” or “that/those of Y” instead:





But I still don’t understand it, nor do I know its history. When did the possessive go away, and why? Shouldn’t those all have a possessive there?


Answer



Jane is obviously not a hat, so it’s hardly confusing. I would analyse it as a rather extreme ellipsis in which the repeated noun and verb are both removed.





John always wears a similar hat to [the hat which] Jane [wears].




Whether I would write that, I’m not sure. Speech tends to be more compressed than written language, and it’s possible to take more time over being careful when writing. I might write Jane’s.


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