Friday, August 31, 2012

grammaticality - No matches found or No matches were found



I'd like to know which of this two expression is grammatically correct to show in a message in a website, when the users filter and there's no data returned from the server.


Answer




One difference I can think of (though both variants are indeed correct, as has already been commented) is related to whether your message appears during or after, say, the search.



"No answers were found" is quite explicit as to what is meant:



A search was done, but it yielded no results.



"No answers found", on the other hand, loose as it is, may connote that the search didn't yield and is still not yielding any results, so it may be more suitable in case the message appears in real-time, while the search is still being executed.


grammaticality - Is a bare infinitive acceptable as the object of a verb?

I came upon the phrase, "writing helps develop a child analytically thinking." Is this grammatically correct? Is it OK to use just develop instead of to develop?

meaning - Is there any nuance in ‘I was kind’ when it means ‘I treated her kindly”?




"But I was patient. I wrote back. I was sympathetic, I was kind. Ginny simply loved me. No one’s ever understood me like you, Tom …. I’m so glad I’ve got this diary to confide in …. It’s like having a friend I can carry around in my pocket …."
(p309, Harry Potter 2, US edition)





NB --
The speaker, Tom Riddle, is a villain in this story. He is boasting how well he could win Ginny’s heart by becoming a kind of pen pal with her.



The author describes his character as an impatient, unsympathetic, and unkind one. Therefore, I would think his saying expresses temporal action, not permanent character. He treated her kindly at that time and his attitudes got Ginny to fall in love.



But I feel something strange when ‘I was kind’ and ‘She loved me’ express action, for I’ve run into much more ‘be kind’ and ‘love’ which describe someone’s character or continuing state since I started studying English.



So, here is my question.
Is there any nuance in ‘I was kind’ when it means ‘I treated her kindly”?

In other words, why does the speaker use such expressions, instead of other expressions like ‘treat kindly’?


Answer



I voted-up Rofler's answer, so I will not repeat what he said, and with which I agree. Let me say that I think you are asking the right questions, since...




I was kind. /then/




on its own would, indeed, imply truthfulness, a sincere kindness; but still there are two sides to each coin and to life there are many sides, so the statement can be said also if you were kind only to a particular group or a person (and they can truthfully perceive you as kind), or only in particular period of time or a moment.




It does not imply that




I am kind. /now/




nor the above sentence implies that




I will be kind. /for ever and ever/





Maybe you would take it as better if it would have said:




I was patient. I wrote back. I pretended to be sympathetic, to be kind.




However, there is another trick at work here; this is written in first person and in the context of this character you already expect a different ethos, a different attitude towards truth.




If such character says




I was gentle.




you are not experiencing the same value of the message as when the exact same sentence is said by Nabokov's Lolita or Bulgakov's Woland.


meaning - Confusing sentence in an 1858 novel by George MacDonald

I’m not a native English speaker, and I was reading George MacDonald’s fantasy novel of 1858 Phantastes: A Faerie Romance for Men and Women.



Everything was going fine but suddenly I saw this sentence near the end of a long paragraph, and I couldn't understand what the sentence meant or even how it was put together in its syntax.




Here is the very end of that long paragraph, with the sentence that so puzzles me rendered in bold:




[...] Almost fearing to touch them, they witnessed so mutely to the law of oblivion, I leaned back in my chair, an regarded them for a moment; when suddenly there stood on the threshold of the little chamber, as though she had just emerged from its depth, a tiny woman-form, as perfect in shape as if she had been a small Greek statuette roused to life and motion. Her dress was of a kind that could never grow old-fashioned, because it was simply natural: a robe plaited in a band around the next, and confined by a belt around the waist, descended to her feet. I took notice of her dress, although my surprise was by no means of so over­powering a degree as such an apparition might naturally be expected to excite. Seeing, however, as I suppose, some astonishment in my countenance, she came forward within a yard of me, and said, in a voice that strangely recalled a sensation of twilight, and reedy river banks, and a low wind, even in this deathly room:
              “Anodos, you never saw such a little creature before, did you?”




I can’t make heads or tails of the sentence in bold. The words don’t even seem to fit together into a coherent sentence. Even though I know what each word means by itself, all jumbled together like that the meaning is lost to me.



Can you rearrange the words in that sentence to make something I can understand?

adjective order: "long boring report" or "boring long report"?


A long boring annual report
A boring long annual report




which of the above is right?




I learnt the adjective order of DOSA SCOMP, which means the adjective order should be as below:




determiner, opinion, size, age, shape, color, origin, material, purpose




the answer is




a long boring annual report





but that seems to be against the DOSA SCOMP
Does anyone know the reason?

adjectives - Pluralization rule for "five-year-old children", "20 pound note", "10 mile run"



Why are year, pound and mile in the singular form in the phrases below?




  • five-year-old children

  • 20 pound note

  • 10 mile run




Is that because they're acting as adjectives, which are always invariable in English?



Is it incorrect to say...




  • five-years-old children?

  • 20 pounds note?

  • 10 miles run?


Answer




Those are called compound and hyphenated compound adjectives. And adjectives don't have plural forms.



Additional examples




three-storey building (three-stories bulding)



four-wheel drive (four-wheels drive)



32-bit processor (32-bits processor)




grammaticality - "I'm lovin' it"



How normal-sounding is the slogan "I'm lovin' it" to native ears?



I know it sounded quite odd to me when I first heard it — and it still sometimes does —, but I can't even tell why. Sure, love is supposedly a stative verb, but it's being used in progressive aspect all the time without sounding weird at all (lots of songs come to mind, e.g. Loving Every Minute). It's only this particular slogan that somehow doesn't quite work for me. I would expect that to be totally on purpose — it's advertising, after all —, but Wikipedia doesn't mention any objections from native speakers (as it does with "Think Different" and "Winston tastes good like a cigarette should"). So I'm asking the native speakers of this community: does "I'm lovin' it" sound completely natural to you? Just a bit off? Completely weird? Why?


Answer



It sounds fine to me. (But I'm not actually a native speaker, and Indian English does have a reputation for using the progressive a lot.)




This is how I interpret "I'm loving it". (I've put back the 'g' because writing lovin' is too folksy for me.) I also assume "it" refers to something particular, like McDonald's or the food there. Also, I think it helps to consider the analogous sentence "I'm enjoying it".



English certainly uses stative: I love chocolate, or I enjoy classical music. This expresses your position on something. But suppose I'm at a play/concert/movie, and someone asks me what I feel, during the event. I may say "I'm enjoying it" or "I'm loving it (at this moment / so far)". This seems perfectly natural to me, though perhaps not to native speakers everywhere.



There's also a difference between "I love it" and "I'm loving it". If you love chocolate, it only says what you feel when the issue of chocolate comes up, but if you are loving McDonald's, it implies that you're there right now and/or are actively engaged in thinking about it and loving it. (Just as "I'm enjoying classical music [right now]" means more than "I enjoy classical music".) Presumably, "I'm loving it" is a subtle suggestion that you too, like the speaker of the slogan, ought to be at McDonald's right now and actually get on with the act of loving it, not merely think of it as a nice place to visit from time to time. :-)


Thursday, August 30, 2012

word choice - With possibly/probably/arguably the most diverse student-body

I know these are all similar, but what kind of connotations does each have? Which one is the strongest (to say it is actually the most diverse, while trying to remain "politically correct")?

etymology - When/where/why did "Look who it ain't/isn't" appear?

It seems to me that...





"Well! Look who it ain't!"




...is/was normally used quite dismissively, referring to a newly-arrived person of low social status, who the speaker would often then proceed to denigrate at some length to the assembled company.



I said "is/was" because I'm not even sure if people still say it. I remember it as fairly common in my youth (Southern UK in the 60s), but I don't recall hearing it lately (until I just noticed it in a 70s movie).



Does anyone know when and where the usage arose? Does it have any currency among younger speakers today? And can anyone explain why it includes negation?

Object vs Subject?

Consider the following sentence:




"Even during the simple occurrence of him and me standing next to each other makes me notice that he's taller than me."




Is him and me correct? Should it be he and I?

Capitalization of foreign proper nouns

Serbo-Croatian grammar requires that only the first word of a multi word name of a place or an object is capitalized. For example, "Stari most" is a name of a bridge in Bosnia-Herzegovina.



If we don't translate the name to English do we capitalize both words as "Stari Most" or do we keep the native language capitalization?

comparatives - "than do I" vs. "than I do"

I need grammatical explanations for the following two sentence structures:






  1. The mistakes children make in learning to speak tell linguists more about how children learn language than do the correct forms they use.

  2. Freedman's survey showed that people living in small towns and rural areas consider themselves no happier than do people living in big cities.




If noticed, would someone explain me why "do" appears after "than" in the both of the sentences above?



So, would it be correct if I say, "You explain it more clearly than do I"?

Wednesday, August 29, 2012

possessives - Yours vs. your's



Which is correct “Is that yours?” or “Is that your’s?”?



I ask because it is possessive, so I would think it would be the latter, but I typically use and see the former usage.



Are there particular cases in which one should be used instead of the other? Or is one simply correct and the other not?




This is one of the few things that still confuse me, so help is greatly appreciated.


Answer



It would definitely, unequivocally, and undeniably be yours. Same with ours. No apostrophe needed, and if you put one in, dark things may happen.



From NOAD:




yours |yôrz; yoŏrz|
possessive pronoun




1 used to refer to a thing or things belonging to or associated with the person or people that the speaker is addressing : the choice is yours | it's no business of yours.



grammar - Effort IN improving?



Could you please let me know if the following excerpt of a sentence is grammatically correct (specifically the preposition after "effort"):



"Should there be anything that you feel we are missing, your insight would be invaluable to our effort in improving our products(...)"



An explanation on why it is/isn't correct would also be highly appreciated.
Prepositions are tough. :(


Answer




The preposition 'in' is perfectly fine in the way you have used it. However the sentence as a whole, though grammatically correct, reads a little clumsily. My own way of saying much the same thing would be as below. Note especially that I have changed 'insight' to 'feedback, the more usual word for customer comments. 'Insight' is used more as regards professional opinions.



'If you have any comments you wish to make on our products or service, your feedback would be invaluable to our continuing efforts to improve'.


headline case - Title Capitalization Doubt: "If" or "if?"











Suppose I'm going to write an article/essay with the following title:



"What To Do If You Believe Space Aliens Shot JFK"




Does the word "if" get capitalized, like above, or not?


Answer



The word if is typically capitalized in titles.



According to Wikipedia:



In English, the first word and the last word of titles should be capitalized. In addition, all nouns, pronouns, adjectives, verbs, adverbs, and subordinate conjunctions should be capitalized. Articles and coordinating conjunctions are not capitalized, while sources disagree on the capitalization of prepositions.



"If" is a subordinate (also, subordinating) conjunction and as such should be capitalized.


What article should be used at the beginning of the sentence about an object unknown to others?



I've started to write some story and at the beginning of that I'm faced with an issue. I'm not clear understanding what the article (the definite article or indefinite one) should be used when my oppopent doesn't know about some object but I do and espesially that object is unique.
For example:
"When I went to school I used to come to class when the teacher always was there."
By "the teacher" I mean my "form master" (or "homeroom teacher", I actually don't know which term is more proper).




So, should I use "a teacher" just because some object I'm talking about is unknown for my opponent or it would be better to use "the teacher" and it's quite clear for opponents that I mean "homeroom teacher" or it would be more naturally to use "my teacher" ?


Answer



Use "the" in this case, because you are talking about (and it will be assumed you are talking about) the teacher who is assigned to this particular class, the teacher who comes in every day. If the identity of the teacher in question is variable, you would use a, as in You want to go on a field trip? Will there be a teacher there to supervise? In this case, any teacher might fill this role.


Tuesday, August 28, 2012

grammaticality - Singular noun objects of plural subjects



What is the rule for singular noun objects of plural subjects? For example I and google N-grams agree that




They gave their word.





is better than




They gave their words.




To my mind, this is because each has but a single word to give and cannot give more. However, google seems to disagree with me on





They gave their life.




vs




They gave their lives.




As you can see in the linked N-gram, the second is far more common than the first. What's going on here? People (cats excluded) only have one life and it seems passing strange that they would be able, let alone willing, to give more.




If pressed, I would claim that the object should only be plural if each of the subjects has many. For example




They called their friends




If each of the "they" in question has only one of whatever object we are talking about I would call it ungrammatical to have that object in the plural form. Am I wrong?







EDIT:



This question was prompted by a comment on this post on S&F.SE defending the use of consciousnesses as the plural form of consciousness by referring to this page. The word was used in this sentence:




Looking for a story where people download their consciousnesses into bodies




It occurred to me that whether or not consciousnesses is correct, it should not be used in that (admittedly bizarre) context since each person only has one consciousness to download. I would have therefore said





Looking for a story where people download their consciousness into bodies




This to me seems like an equivalent sentence to they gave their word or they gave their life. In all three cases I would use the singular form of the noun since each of the subjects can only give (or download as the case may be) one.


Answer



In the sentence They gave [object], the object is singular when the group collectively gives a single thing. In your example, They gave their word, the group collectively makes the same promise. In contrast, They gave their lives says that each member of the group devoted or sacrificed their individual lives – even if they shared a common cause.



This is true for all transitive verbs. For example, if a group of comrades make a conference call (or even a series of calls) to a single person, They called their friend. However, if they each make individual calls to separate people, They called their friends.







EDIT: Also note that we don't always pluralize abstract nouns in English. The more abstract the noun, the more likely we are to use it collectively. That's why plural consciousnesses sounds awkward even when talking about multiple minds: We usually think of minds concretely, consciousness in the abstract.



In many cases, you can use a noun either way. Choosing to pluralize or not helps to emphasize whether you mean it concretely or in the abstract. For example, All presidents swear an oath to uphold the Constitution of the United States. This emphasizes that all presidents make an oath of the same nature, even though they all do it individually. They all give their word.



In contrast, we usually write that they devote their lives to upholding the Constitution to emphasize the individual nature of their contributions. You could write that as singular life instead to emphasize the common, abstract nature of their devotion, but we usually don't.


Monday, August 27, 2012

Pronunciation of letter y: asylum vs syrup



I want someone to clarify if there is a rule about how to pronounce the letter Y




I've read in another stackexchange post that when it is in a Greek-origin word it is pronounced as uh e.g. analysis, paralysis.



However in another Greek-origin word, asylum, it is pronounced as i while the in the latin word syrup it is pronounced as /i/.


Answer



No.



There are no rules for how to pronounce the letter Y -- or rather there are too many rules, and none of them work. Similarly, there are also no good rules for how to pronounce any other letter of the English alphabet. Modern English spelling does NOT represent pronunciation in Modern English.



Rather, it represents one spelling (there were many) for Middle English pronunciation, which got fixed when printing became established in England, right before the end of the Great Vowel Shift. Spelling used to be free, like handwriting is now; but printing froze it, a little too soon to get a good spelling for Modern English. Too bad, but we're stuck with it now.



punctuation - Comma or no comma before the word "and"

I'm curious about whether to use comma before "and". Some people told me that using comma to connect two different sentences and two different subjects.



Please provide some examples to explain the usage of this. Thanks a lot!

pronouns - Can "his/her" be replaced by "his"?



Yesterday, I asked this question on Web Apps:




If a Facebook user dies, what happens
to the account?





Actually, I wanted to ask it this way:




If a Facebook user dies, what happens
to his/her account?




I chose the easy way and used the instead of his/her. Could I use just his in this case?:





If a Facebook user dies, what happens
to his account?




What would you recommend for similar cases? Which pronoun is more appropriate to be used?


Answer



You can use the singular “their”: “what happens to their account”.



While is was regarded with rather less than more favorability in the past by style guides, it is gender-neutral and, as such, regains popularity.


adjectives - "on time" vs. "on-time"




I'm in the "on-time" camp when it comes to describing, for example, delivering something by the deadline. Is this the correct usage?


Answer



In a situation where you're using the phrase on time as an adjective (basically a synonym of punctual) preceding the noun, then it's fairly common to use a hyphen. Examples I was able to quickly pull up were things like




On-time delivery is our goal.



On-time flight departures were up 10%.



On-time performance is an important ingredient





However, if you're using the phrase on time as an adverb to describe when the verb is going to happen, the hyphen is not appropriate. For example:




We will deliver your package on time.



Your flight will depart on time.





Finally, if you're using on time as a predicate adjective, I would not use the hyphen.




Your delivery was on time.



Sunday, August 26, 2012

grammar - Should the words "much needed" be hyphenated or not?

Here's an example of what I mean:



"It's time for some much needed rest and relaxation."



Or should it be:




"It's time for some much-needed rest and relaxation."

adjective order: "long boring report" or "boring long report"?


A long boring annual report
A boring long annual report




which of the above is right?



I learnt the adjective order of DOSA SCOMP, which means the adjective order should be as below:




determiner, opinion, size, age, shape, color, origin, material, purpose





the answer is




a long boring annual report




but that seems to be against the DOSA SCOMP
Does anyone know the reason?

grammar - What is the difference between these two almost identical sentences?

There are even numbers of good and bad things.



There are an even number of good and bad things.



What is the difference?

Saturday, August 25, 2012

Should this phrase be contained in commas, parentheses, or nothing?

I tried to figure out if this is correct. I just don´t know if I should use commas before and after "rather than one", a parenthesis, or no comma at all.



I think that "rather than one" is non-essential information and it is not part of the object "three consecutive adjectives alike". Am I in the clear?




Since the writers used three consecutive adjectives alike, rather than one, and highlighted the noun “MURDER”, a negative attitude towards non-standard behavior is communicated to the reader.



grammatical number - Is it correct to say: These are not homework?




A teacher sent home a list of assignments with a cover letter explaining, "These are not homework."



"This is not homework," or "These pages are not homework," sound equally normal to me, but "These are not homework," just sounds weird. Is it correct grammar?




...



I don't agree that the question: 'Agreement in “[Singular Noun] Is/Are [Plural Noun]”?' describes this specific usage. In "These are not homework," the word "These" is not a singular noun. It's a plural pronoun. I suspect that some of the problem is that the missing noun is implied to the reader only by the physical presence of other documents, and not contextually from the surrounding content of the cover letter itself.


Answer



Can't a noun in plural form be complemented with a noun in singular form? Of course it can. Here are some examples:




These workers make a lot of mistakes when they work since they are
new to this job. They are not the main reason we are losing money – the state of the market is.





and:




These people are my family.




and also:





We are a team!




If the above sentences sound grammatically correct to you, there's no reason why your teacher's sentence would be any different.
The quote you provided is perfectly fine and makes the same sense:




These (things you need to do) are not (the) homework (you are
obligated to do).




Friday, August 24, 2012

grammar - Split infinitives—did Old English have them?



I've read a few articles as well as questions on this site about splitting infinitives. In the Wikipedia article, it claims:




In Old English, infinitives were single words ending in -n or -an (compare modern Dutch and German -n, -en). Gerunds were formed using "to" followed by a verbal noun in the dative case, which ended in -anne or -enne (e.g. tō cumenne = "coming, to come").





I read a bit on the use of infinitives in Old English; apparently, Old English has a to-infinitive that became Modern English infinitive. For example, the following sentence from (I think) Alfred's English translation of "Consolation of Philosophy":




he wilnað good to habbanne ond mid goode to bionne.




"He wills good to have and mid good to be"



Since the infinitives, "to habbanne" and "to bionne" are also two words, did the English speakers back then ever think of putting an adverb between them? For example, would Alfred or Bede have written something along the line of this:





he wilnað good to ā habbanne ond mid goode to sælige bionne.




"He wills good to forever have and mid good to happily be"



It seems English texts from that time don't contain this kind of sentences, but would it have been considered correct?



What about other Germanic languages?


Answer




A search of the York-Toronto-Helsinki Corpus of Old English Prose for the infinitive marker to followed by anything other than a non-finite verb form yields no relevant examples. This is consistent with the other modern West Germanic languages, where zu (in German) and te (in Dutch) can't be separated from the following non-finite verb. The same is true of the early West Germanic languages (Old High German, Old Saxon).



It's safe to say that Old English didn't have split infinitives. Though absence of evidence is not the same as evidence of absence, there are so many examples of to + infinitive constructions in these early languages that it seems incredibly unlikely that splitting the two was a grammatical possibility.


Bare infinitive after "help" with intervening past participle phrase

Which is correct?




Our mission is to help everyone touched by tragedy thrive.




or





Our mission is to help everyone touched by tragedy to thrive.




I know that technically help can admit the bare infinitive, but something about the presence of the intervening past participle phrase makes it strike my ear as incorrect. Thoughts?

Thursday, August 23, 2012

verb agreement - His politics is not good/ His politics are not good

I have a doubt whether 'His mathematics is bad' is correct or 'His mathematics are bad' is correct ?

Wednesday, August 22, 2012

grammar - How does the phrase "Is something the matter?" make sense?



Is something the matter?




I've read or heard this usage of matter many times. For instance, in The pleasure of finding things out, R.P. Feynman writes:




I could tell that something was the matter.




This usage doesn't seem right to me. It's hard for me to pinpoint what exactly bothers me, but I think it has to do with the use of the definite article "the" when the existence of a problem hasn't even been confirmed/acknowledged yet.




I know this usage of matter is accepted by many, but how does it make logical/grammatical sense?






Instead of:




Is something the matter?





I would much prefer




Is there a problem?




Instead of





I could tell that something was the matter.




I would prefer




I could tell that there was a problem.




Note that my issue is with the choice of article, not with that of the noun.

grammar - Complex sentences question



I have 2 sentences that I don't understand:



1.) The girl [[sleeping]] in the room is my sister.
2.) People usually can get a sufficient amount of the calcium their bodies [[ need ]] from the food they consumed.



These 2 sentences have one verb already. (is for (1) and get for (2)) why they don't use the same.




And I heard that without the word "That" I have to use Ving after that, what is it? Where can I find the source to study.


Answer



These sentences have been done things to.
Put the pieces back together before you try to parse them.



Here are the full forms, with the bells and whistles put back in (and superfluous phrases snipped):




  1. The [girl [who is sleeping in the room]] is my sister.

  2. People can get enough of the [calcium [which/that their bodies need]] from their food.




(1) is a case of Whiz-Deletion from a relative clause, producing a post-nominal participial clause.
(2) is a case of a dropped non-Subject relative pronoun which/that; they're optional, after all.


phrases - Me and X or X and me?





When should I say, for instance, "Mary and me," and when should I say "Me and Mary?"



Example:



Which option should I use in the following sentence?




After drinking our tea and saying goodbye to Hank, [...] made out way back
to the hotel.




Answer



The order is not a matter of grammar but of convention. It is generally thought to be more polite to mention the other person first.


punctuation - ...Capital letter after period(s)?



Excuse my terrible English knowledge, but I have been wondering this for some time already:
What is correct for the next phrase?:





And he was there. alone. sad. and crying...




or




And he was there. Alone. Sad. And crying...





or




And he was there, alone, sad and crying...




On the first and second cases, I use periods for separating the state of the subject. For some reason, I like it to give better suspense. Given the way I am using the periods, should I use Capital letters after them, or not? These periods are pretty much like commas...



... But maybe I am terribly wrong and should never use periods for such purpose? Should I always follow the third case? Just using commas?



Answer



I would write the first word after the period in capital case, as you did in the second sentence you wrote.
The general rule of writing a word in capital case after a period is still valid even if you write a single word and then a period.



In those cases, the periods are used to give an emphasis to the single words. The pause when "reading" a period is longer than the pause used for a comma; for this reason I would not say the periods are like commas, in the examples you wrote.


Tuesday, August 21, 2012

punctuation - Use of "e.g." — are parentheses necessary?




Is it appropriate to use "e.g." in a sentence without using parentheses?





  1. This administrative access control should provide visibility into access via multiple vectors (e.g. group access rights versus individual account rights).

  2. This administrative access control should provide visibility into access via multiple vectors e.g. group access rights versus individual account rights.



Answer



It is certainly appropriate to use "e.g." in a sentence without deploying parentheses. In your Example 2, I would place a comma before "e.g.". Parenthesizing examples is purely the prerogative of the author, usually serving as a means of indicating the perceived importance of the examples to the thought being expressed.



Inversion after "only now"



I was wondering if the following sentence was grammatically correct:



"Only now am I sure who is my real friend."



I found it in my grammar book and I am confused.
Thanks in advance :)


Answer



In a comment, BillJ wrote:





Not really. The subject-auxiliary inversion ("am I") is fine and occurs as a result of fronting the adverb "only". But there should not be inversion in the subordinate interrogative clause, which should be who my real friend is.



Monday, August 20, 2012

sentence - 'The average person' or 'an average person'?

Which one is correct, or are both of them fine?




  • "It would take the average person 10 days to read this novel"



Or





  • "It would take an average person 10 days to read this novel"

Sunday, August 19, 2012

Using active voice without personal pronouns



When writing scientific research proposals I have been advised to try and stick to active voice because passive tends to sound indirect and to imply doubt. However, when writing in active voice, I find it difficult to not use personal pronouns. Does anyone have any tips for maintaining active voice without using personal pronouns?


Answer



Well, if you're that bothered about avoiding personal pronouns, you can always say "The author", "The researcher" etc. It's really a matter of preference; not all scientists think there's anything terribly wrong with good old-fashioned words like "I" and "we"...



You may also want to see if you can actually find a scientific study attesting to the perceived indirectness or doubt of the passive.


verbs - Subjunctive with "and" clause

(This is very similar to how to conjugate verb in dependent clause inside subjunctive mood — but that question has no accepted answer and this question is about independent, not dependent clauses.)



The sentence in question (referring to a virtual machine, a computer program that simulates an actual hardware device):





  1. It acted exactly as if it were a hardware machine and its power was/were[?] cut.





While the "as if" forces the first verb into the imperfect subjunctive "were", I think both "was" and "were" are syntactically acceptable for the second verb but have different semantics:





  1. It acted exactly as if it were a hardware machine and its power were cut.





expresses the idea of both clauses implicitly being introduced by "as if" — in other words, it acted exactly like a hardware machine, and acted exactly like its power was cut. Obviously there would be no argument (except with the wordiness) in making this explicit:





  1. It acted exactly as if it were a hardware machine and as if its power were cut.




—the second "as if" demands the subjunctive just as the first does.




But





  1. It acted exactly as if it were a hardware machine and its power was cut.




expresses the idea that only its being a hardware machine is counterfactual; having imagined such a machine, the possibility of the imagined machine's power being cut is not counterfactual.




Thus my intuition is that using "was" for the second verb more correctly expresses the sentiment. Going back to sentence #3 with two "as if" clauses: while grammatical, that sentence seems slightly nonsensical, since cutting power is something that is impossible to do to a virtual machine, which lacks a power supply. "[The virtual machine] acted as if its power were cut" standing alone would be a sentence without any sensible meaning. Only in imagining the counterfactual hardware machine can the power being cut have meaning, and that meaning is not a counterfactual, but an eventuality.



This is my intuition from the old minimal pair,





  1. If my boss calls, tell me immediately.





vs.





  1. If the President were to call, tell me immediately.




My boss calling is an eventuality; the President calling is unlikely to the point of being a near-counterfactual.




And similarly, power failing to a hardware device is an eventuality, so I'm inclined towards the indicative, not the subjunctive.



I haven't yet entertained the possibility of:





  1. It acted exactly as if it were a hardware machine and its power were to be cut.





because this seems needlessly wordy, even though it is technically a different conjugation — the "as if" isn't distributive here — and it sounds grammatical to my ears. If, for some reason, I needed to make explicit the conditional sequencing of the imagined machine and its power being cut, this sentence's wordiness might be acceptable.



To restate the question explicitly: is either "was" or "were" obligatory in the second clause, or are both acceptable? And, if they are both acceptable, do they express slightly different ideas, and if so, in what way? (To restate implicitly: am I right?)





p.s. One digression: Am I correct that the second clause is an independent clause? I asserted that from the outset, but I'm not so confident.



The "its" makes it possible it is a relative clause—it could be rewritten as "...machine whose power was cut", but "its" could be entirely dropped, resulting in an unequivocal independent clause "...machine and power was/were cut", so I think it's an independent clause even though it contains a referring pronominal.

grammaticality - Plural in constructions like A's and B's theory/theories

I have gone through several threads here but haven't found an answer to my question.




In my paper, there are two theorists and each has a theory. Theorist A has theory 1 and theorist B has theory 2.



Can I use both example 1 and example 2 and express this fact?




1) A's and B's theory are worthwhile considering.
2) A's and B's theories are worthwhile considering.





I reckon that 1) is a form of ellipsis standing for A's (theory) and B's theory... Does 2) imply that both A and B have EACH devised more than one theory or that I include A's theory and B's theory to form the plural "theories"?



And on a similar note, Bohr has written one book on a subject and Gitman has written one book:




3) The Bohr and the Gitman volume are worthwhile considering.
4) The Bohr and the Gitman volumes are worthwhile considering.




Which one is correct?

word choice - "If it was" or "if it were"?








Should I say "If I were [something]" or "If I was [something]?"



This came up because I am writing a comment above a function in some code. Here's the comment, basically:



// Shuts down everything
// Will stop the process if it was running
function Shutdown()



So should that say "if it was running" or "if it were running?"



Also, why?

grammatical number - Jury was divided or Jury were divided?







What is correct?
The jury was divided or The jury were divided?
I am told that the latter is accurate because all of the jury do not have the same opinion in the particular case.
Then, how does the subject verb agreement fit in 'The jury is still out' ? I mean, 'The jury is out' would allude to a situation were the opinion on a matter is (are?) still divided.

Possessive case for a certain proper noun - ss apostrophe

In the case of the proper noun Ross, which of the following would be correct?




  1. Ross's

  2. Ross'

Saturday, August 18, 2012

grammaticality - That would be I

When I arrived for a scheduled meeting, I was asked if I was Mr. Smith. I replied, "That would be I." It sorta sounds OK, if not awkward, just more formal. Would "that is me" or "that is I" both be acceptable?

word choice - Is there a correct gender-neutral singular pronoun ("his" vs. "her" vs. "their")?



Is there a pronoun I can use as a gender-neutral pronoun when referring back to a singular noun phrase?





Each student should save his questions until the end.
Each student should save her questions until the end.




Added 10/27/2019
We could use an answer from the transgender community. There are none amongst the first 23 answers. I know there's a term (in America), but i can't remember what it is.


Answer



Singular they enjoys a long history of usage in English and can be used here: "Each student should save their questions until the end."



However, “singular they” also enjoys a long history of criticism. If you are anxious about being criticized (for what is in fact a perfectly grammatical construction) I would advise rewording to avoid having to use a gender-neutral singular third-person pronoun.




Some rewording strategies that can be employed:




  • Use a plural noun: Students should save their questions until the end.

  • Use the formal one: One should save one's questions until the end.

  • Use his or her: Each student should save his or her questions until the end







OED References for “singular” they



Here for the benefit of those who lack access to its paywalled source are the full and complete operative senses from the Oxford English Dictionary. Per the OED the pronoun they has these specific subsenses for the various scenarios under discussion here:





  1. In anaphoric reference to a singular noun or pronoun. 🗨



    Use of they to refer to a singular antecedent has sometimes been considered erroneous.






🗨 Dennis Baron • A brief history of singular ‘they’



…But that’s nothing new. The Oxford English Dictionary traces singular they back to 1375, where it appears in the medieval romance William and the Werewolf. Except for the old-style language of that poem, its use of singular they to refer to an unnamed person seems very modern. Here’s the Middle English version: ‘Hastely hiȝed eche … þei neyȝþed so neiȝh… þere william & his worþi lef were liand i-fere.’ In modern English, that’s: ‘Each man hurried… till they drew near… where William and his darling were lying together.’…



[4 September 2018]










  • 2a. With an antecedent that is grammatically singular, but refers collectively to the members of a group, or has universal reference (e.g. each person, everyone, nobody).



    Sometimes, but not always, used to avoid having to specify the gender(s) of the individual(s) being referred to; cf. sense A. 2b.



    [[citations ranging from 1350–2014 omitted]]










  • 2b. With an antecedent referring to an individual generically or indefinitely (e.g. someone, a person, the student), used esp. so as to make a general reference to such an individual without specifying gender. Cf. ʜᴇ pron. 2b.



    In the 21st century, other th– pronouns (and the possessive adjective their) are sometimes used to refer to a named individual, so as to avoid revealing or making an assumption about that person’s gender; cf. sense A. 2c, and quots. 2008 at ᴛʜᴇɪʀ adj. 2b, 2009 at ᴛʜᴇᴍ pron. 4b, 2009 at ᴛʜᴇᴍꜱᴇʟꜰ pron. 2b.




    [[citations ranging from 1450–2010 omitted]]









  • 2c. Used with reference to a person whose sense of personal identity does not correspond to conventional sex and gender distinctions, and who has typically asked to be referred to as they (rather than as he or she).




    [[citations ranging from 2009–2019 omitted]]










Copyright © 2019 Oxford University Press. All rights reserved.







Retrieved 2019-10-25 23:46:13 UTC, and shown here under the Fair Use Exception.


grammar - Why is the British tv show "the Undatables" not called "the Undatable" without 's'?

There is a tv series on Channel 4 called "The Undatables" which I have just started watching.



The title keeps me wondering why it's not just called "the undatable" like the poor or the rich?



Last time I checked my grammar book, you only need an adjective after "the" to refer to a certain type of people.



Can you at least tell me why do you think the producer decided to make it plural by putting the "s" at the end?




Thanks

grammaticality - 'Not only Sarah, but also Jim didn't like Paris.'

Does this sound fine?





'Not only Sarah, but also Jim didn't like Paris.'




I am wondering if not can be used twice, even though the use of not is quite different in each position, as in the above.
Is this sentence grammatically correct, either when written or spoken?

Friday, August 17, 2012

reflexives - "Themselves" or "Themself" in a singular context?




I have the following sentence:




In order to read the remainder of this book, the reader is advised to familiarize themselves with the concepts contained within this Chapter.




I want to put:





In order to read the remainder of this book, the reader is advised to familiarize themself with the concepts contained within this Chapter.




In this very great article here, it explains why you should use themself only in an informal context, and the sentence they gave supports this, however; In the sentence I have, it sounds plain wrong (as sometimes proper English tends to sound, admittedly), despite what they say. Should I still use themselves, because it is in a proper context, or am I able to use themself instead, despite its proper context?


Answer



The singular "they" and its spawn are notoriously frustrating and controversial. Because your question is about what you "should" do, I would suggest a reasonable workaround:




In order to read the remainder of this book, the reader is advised to become familiar with the concepts contained within this Chapter.





I believe your understanding of what is acceptable, in terms of the reflexive pronoun, is correct. However, in most cases it is relatively easy to sidestep the conundrum altogether.


Thursday, August 16, 2012

pronouns - Which one is correct to say: "It's me" or "It's I"?



I was taught at school that the following expression is not grammatically correct:





Who is there? It's me.




The correct one is:




Who is there? It's I.




Can you let me know which one is accurate?




Here is a good explanation about both forms.


Answer



As reported from the NOAD:




me /mi/
pronoun [first person singular]
1. used by a speaker to refer to himself or herself as the object of a verb or preposition:




Do you understand me?
Wait for me!





• used after the verb to be and after than or as:




Hi, it's me.
You have more than me.




• informal to or for myself:





I've got me a job.





It's then correct to say it's me.


grammaticality - A number of questions "has been" or "have been" asked?



Formally, is it correct to write:





A number of questions has been asked here.




or:




A number of questions have been asked here.





As a non-native speaker of English, I would prefer the former: the subject seems to be "number", therefore the verb ought to be singular, I'd say. However, the latter seems more common, and therefore I believe that my gut feeling is just plain wrong — but I would really like to have a definite answer.



Moreover, is it the same for "a myriad of", "a plethora of", and so on?


Answer



"The number" is singular. "A number", however, is plural, and takes a plural verb. Thus, for both informal and formal usage, the following is correct:




A number of questions have been asked here.





See the usage note not quite halfway down the page at Dictionary.com, or this daily writing tip.


Wednesday, August 15, 2012

grammaticality - Is it "a uniform" or "an uniform"?





On a Physics specification, it says:




6.7 Know how to use two permanent magnets to produce a uniform magnetic field pattern.





Isn't it "produce an uniform magnetic field", or is the existing "produce a uniform magnetic field pattern" correct?


Answer



The word uniform begins with a palatal approximant /j/. The palatal approximant is a consonantal sound, even though the letter itself is a vowel. Since we use the pronunciation of the word following the article to determine whether we use "a" or "an", and because it is pronounced starting with a consonant, we use "a". Thus, the original sentence is correct.






Just for the sake of completeness, the letter "u" can also have a vowel sound, such as in the word "umbrella", which begins with an open-mid back unrounded vowel /ʌ/.


Tuesday, August 14, 2012

grammar - Is "group" singular or plural?











When I'm referring to a group of multiple things, should it be considered singular or plural for the purposes of applying a verb to it? For example, which is correct in the examples below?





A sentence is a group of words that is followed by a period.
A sentence is a group of words that are followed by a period.



The group of people constitutes a jury.
The group of people constitute a jury.



A group of crows is called a 'murder'.
A group of crows are called a 'murder'.




My instinct is that it depends on whether the verb is referncing the group itself or the members of the group directly, but is that right?



Answer



According to the OALD, group can actually serve as either a plural or singular noun. The category they give is "countable + singular or plural verb". So, an example of correct use is:




A group of us is/are going to the theatre this evening.




For any of your examples, both is and are can be used. I think the difference between them is as you say: use is when you are referring to the group, and use are when you are referring to the members of a given group. This page on when to use "group" as plural from Washington State University backs this up, saying:





When the group is being considered as a whole, it can be treated as a single entity: “the group was ready to go on stage.” But when the individuality of its members is being emphasized, “group” is plural: “the group were in disagreement about where to go for dinner.”




To analyze your given examples, here are some notes:




  • A sentence is a group of words that is followed by a period. Use this form if you're talking about the group itself. That is, a sentence is a group of words followed by a period.

  • A sentence is a group of words that are followed by a period. This implies that "This. Is. A. Sentence" is a sentence.

  • The group of people constitutes a jury.

  • The group of people constitute a jury. This would be more correct, since you are describing the nature of the group.


  • A group of crows is called a 'murder'. This would be correct, since you're again describing an entire group.

  • A group of crows are called a 'murder'.


Capitalization of Attorney General Office

I understand that "attorney general" by itself should not be capitalized but capitalizing attorney general should be done if it is accompanied by a name (e.g., Attorney General Stewart). But how about the actual office. Should "office of the attorney general" be capitalized as "Office of the Attorney General?" Bureau of Alcohol, or Department of Homeland Security, if I'm not mistaken, are capitalized, so I would assume Office of the Attorney General would also be capitalized.

Monday, August 13, 2012

Punctuation: Comma

Which one is correct?




"My name is Karl, and I'll be helping you today."
"My name is Karl and I'll be helping you today."

grammatical number - One and a half minute/minutes










When talking about "one and a half" of any object, do we use the subsequent noun in plural or just singular? I'm aware that "A minute and a half" is also correct but I'm looking for the specific "One and a half"-construction here.




So for example, which of the below phrases is correct?




You're one and a half minutes late!




or




You're one and a half minute late!





Is there any difference when using the phrase as an adjective like so: "One-and-a-half-minute recipe"?


Answer



When you say "one and a half" you are referencing more than one minute, so you must use the plural form "minutes".


commas - Just me, a schizophrenic and a petty arsonist






Just me, a schizophrenic and a petty arsonist.




How many people are there in the above sentence? Is it ambiguous?


Answer




I could imagine anywhere from 1 to 3 people:



One:



Just me (further describing myself as a schizophrenic and arsonist)



Two:



Just me (describing myself as a schizophrenic), and another person who is an arsonist




Just me, and another person who is both a schizophrenic and arsonist



Three:



Me, a schizophrenic, and an arsonist


grammar - Whom, who or that?




Which is the correct sentence?




Match me only with people I kissed or people that I am
following




or





Match me only with people I kissed or people who I am
following




or




Match me only with people I kissed or people whom I am
following





Or are they all wrong?


Answer





These are correct.




Match me only with people I kissed or people that I am following



Match me only with people I kissed or people whom I am following


grammaticality - Implied subject with "i.e."

Is it required that an i.e. clause have an explicit subject? Preferred?




E.g., is the following sentence correct?




She was not amenable, i.e., turned him down.




Or would it have to be




She was not amenable, i.e., she turned him down.





I.e., can you use i.e. to clarify only part of a sentence, or must you use the full sentence (and restate the the other part that didn't bear clarifying)?

Sunday, August 12, 2012

punctuation - Should I put a comma before the last item in a list?



Should I put a comma before the last item in a list?




I would like crackers, cheese and some soda.
I would like crackers, cheese, and some soda.



Answer



Using a comma before the last item in a list is known as the Oxford Comma, sometimes the Serial Comma. It is used before conjunctions in a list like this with three or more items. Its use is purely written style and optional. It is more common in America outside journalism, and much less common in other English speaking areas of the world. There are arguments for and against which usually come down to comprehension. Wikipedia quotes these ambiguities:





To my parents, Mother Teresa and the Pope.



To my parents, Mother Teresa, and the Pope.




Also on that wiki page you can find lots of links to certain style guides. Comma use is something of a grey area though, and everyone has his own style. Pick what reduces ambiguity.



Language log has an interesting article on how reading comprehension can be improved with comma use, including this type.



grammaticality - Can / Should you begin *and* end a sentence with a preposition



Here's the phrase in question which originally ended with a preposition:





  1. Who is the client currently residing with?





A way to rephrase to put the proposition at the beginning would be:





  1. With whom is the client currently residing?





I think this approach satisfies the inner grammarian, but shifts away from natural language.



Some users found it confusing (and what is language but a tool for communication) and suggested the following alternative phrasing to have the preposition at both the beginning and the end:





  1. With whom is the client currently residing with?





I think this hodgepodge tries to satisfy grammarians while also being accessible to the masses.



But does it deliver on that?



Grammarians should take issue because I think this is the least gramatical of the three, and it seems cumbersome for average users.



In terms of language and clarity, which phrasing is preferential?


Answer



Both of the following sentences are grammatical and, depending on who you ask, acceptable from the point of view of style:





✔ 1. Who is the client currently residing with?
✔ 2. With whom is the client currently residing?




First of all, it's a myth that grammarians say you shouldn't end a sentence with a preposition. It's one of those persistent proscriptions that got started by someone and never left the collective unconscious. Ask almost any grammarian, and they'll say it's perfectly fine to end a sentence with a preposition; however, it may not be the style that a particular author chooses to use when writing something.



Second, while there are traditional conventions of grammar when it comes to who versus whom, neither one is, currently, considered to actually be wrong. It's more of a preference as to which should be used. To whom (or [preposition] whom) is kind of a set phrase, so it's common to see whom used in that context. In other constructions, where whom would traditionally have been used, who is now the more common word—and it is used without comment.



So, by that token, the following would also be considered acceptable (although most people would probably use the first sentence form instead—because, currently, it sounds more idiomatic):





✔ 2b. Whom is the client currently residing with?







The following, however, would be considered awkward at the very least—if not outright ungrammatical:





✘ 3. With whom is the client currently residing with?




It looks like it's trying to get away with using a preposition at the end of the sentence by somehow constructing the start of the sentence in such a way that its use at the end is excused. Except that it's not.



In effect, what this sentence is saying is:




✘ 3b. Who is the client currently residing with with?





The second with is redundant. That one instance of with has been moved to the start of the sentence is irrelevant—there shouldn't be a repetitive use of the preposition in the first place, no matter where each is located.






If it sounds more natural to leave the preposition at the end of the sentence, then just leave it there. There's nothing wrong with doing so. If it sounds better to move it to the front, then do that.



But don't attempt some hybrid situation where it ends up being in both places at once. That's imply wrong on all counts of grammar and style.



As for which of the acceptable versions you should use, that's up to you and your audience—and the style that you decide to use in general.







Having said that, while a proposition at both the start and end of a sentence is wrong in this case, it's not true that it's always wrong.



Here are some examples of sentences that start and end with a preposition:




In what currency would you like to pay for the movie you want to go to?
On whose authority did you think I would let you in?
By what person would you like to be looked after?





They may all be phrased a bit oddly, but they are all grammatical. The prepositions being used reference different things, so they are not redundant.


Saturday, August 11, 2012

grammar - Which is correct, In which or In what...?

I refer, for example, to, "In which foods does one find carageenan?" vs. "In what foods...?"
Thank you!

Friday, August 10, 2012

dependent clause - Is the word "should" superfluous in this sentence?

"That you should behave like this is strange".
Will this sentence be grammatically correct if I remove the word "should", from it ?

word choice - Most appropriate phrasing of a sentence containing an exception

Consider the following two paragraphs:



The data was compelling. It appears that all of the companies abandoned that manufacturing method - with one exception - when it was determined to be less efficient.




The data was compelling. With one exception, it appears that all of the companies abandoned that manufacturing method when it was determined to be less efficient.



The idea being conveyed is that one company did not abandon a manufacturing method upon studying data. Both paragraphs convey this information, but in two different ways. I am curious as to which one is more correct if the criteria is proper English.

colloquialisms - What is the commonly accepted pronunciation of FAQ?

I hear FAQ(s) pronounced like a word in "FACK(s)", while I go letter by letter. In usage, what is more common?



(Similar to SQL vs Sequel)

grammar - late on Monday night/ on late Monday night?

I just read a sentence from a news article and was a bit confused with it.



It was




"The incident happened late on Monday night." (S1)




I usually see people write in this way





"The incident happened on late Monday night." (S2)




What is the purpose of writing in S1 format and are there any differences between S1 and S2?

Thursday, August 9, 2012

word choice - Is "They all had 15 minutes waits" grammatically correct?











I was reading an article that used the phrase "15 minutes waits" and it sounded odd to me. I've always said "15 minute waits". Which is grammatically correct? Or are they both acceptable?



Google seems to indicate that "minute waits" (157k) is much more common than "minutes waits" (11.3k).



It also occurs to me that perhaps the former is only valid when 15-minute is hyphenated. i.e. "They all had 15-minute waits."



EDIT:

To be clear, the context of the original sentence was that every one of them had a 15-minute wait. Is it ever correct to say "They all had 15 minutes waits"?


Answer



When you use a quantity and a unit as an adjective, the unit is singular:




  • A 200-pound man...


  • A 280-calorie snack...




When the unit is used as a noun, it's plural (unless the quantity is one, of course):





  • 200 pounds of man crashed down on me...


  • I enjoyed those 280 calories...



grammar - Past tense or present tense to describe something that 'happened in the past' but is still true?

For example:



"Last week, I found out that NASA stands for 'National Aeronautics and Space Administration.'"



or




"Last week, I found out that NASA stood for 'National Aeronautics and Space Administration.'"

grammaticality - "i.e." with "me", "myself", or "i"?

I'm an engineer, and I'm writing an email that includes the following sentence (emphasis added for this question):




We need to let marketing weigh in on the naming of this feature, as an engineer (i.e., me) came up with the current name.




My personal rule for secondary personal pronouns is that I try restructuring the sentence to put the pronoun in the primary location and see what works. For the above, that would be:





We need to let marketing weigh in on the naming of this feature, as I came up with the current name.




This implies that the correct version of the first sentence would be:




We need to let marketing weigh in on the naming of this feature, as an engineer (i.e., I) came up with the current name.





... which sounds awful to this American ear.



What pronoun should I be using here? Or, should I avoid the issue by restructuring the sentence (and to heck with the perhaps forced levity)?

american english - Using a name as a contraction with "is", syntax looks possessive?



"Bob is fat."




Would it be proper to do "Bob's fat."?



To me, this looks possessive, as if we're talking about his fat rather than using "fat" as an adjective. What's the proper way to do this?



"Bob is fat."


Answer



The answer is that it's grammatically proper to write or say "Bob's fat," yes.



It indeed looks (and sounds) the same whether the intention is "Bob is fat" or "The fat of Bob." The difference in understanding would need to come from the context, in writing, or the context or inflection, in speech.




So if the context does not make it clear the precise intention, then it would be smarter to use "Bob is fat" as that phrase is quite clear.


Wednesday, August 8, 2012

Definite article with job position and name

This is one of the banners that one might have spotted in Minsk, Belarus these days: banner



It says "WARM GREETINGS TO PRESIDENT OF THE REPUBLIC OF INDIA PRANAB MUKHERJEE"



Several non-native speakers had an argument on Facebook about grammatical correctness of the subject and specifically if it's absolutely necessary to put a definite article between "TO" and "PRESIDENT" or not. One of the counterparts claims that the cases that were found on (1, 2) are not really applicable to this case as none of them puts "President of (country)" and a name that follows job position into a single sentence, so I'd like to ask about this specific one.




Is this banner OK or "the" is missing?

Apostrophe after Proper Noun ending with s








Today's Newyorker News Desk says Texas's insurgent establishment.
Is Texas's correct usage? Doesn't seem elegant in any case.

Tuesday, August 7, 2012

nouns - Nomenclature or alternatives



Suppose I invent a phrase to describe a particular thing, such as "the three-particle paradigm", which is a new paradigm that I have developed to think about a certain field within particle physics.




I'm looking for alternatives to the words phrase or term to describe "the three-particle paradigm". Is it correct to refer to this one phrase as a nomenclature? Or is nomenclature more for a collection of words encompassing a bigger body of knowledge?



If nomenclature is invalid, please provide alternatives.



The reason I'm looking for a word like this is that I want to explain why I chose these words, such as:




Allow me to explain the nomenclature "the three-particle paradigm": First, there are three particles. Second, ...





Using phrase doesn't sound too good to me.


Answer



While nomenclature has a sense (now obsolete) corresponding to “name”, its more usual meanings “A set of names or terms” and “A set of rules used for forming the names or terms in a particular field of arts or sciences” don't apply to your need. Instead consider synonyms of name, such as appellation (“A name, title or designation”). A little less formally, you might use moniker.


grammar - Is the sentence "There is a large number of labourers who want to migrate to Japan for work." correct?









There is a large number of labourers who want to migrate to Japan for work.




I type this sentence in a word processor, and it reports an error that "is" should be "are" (subject-verb agreement).



I doubt this is a valid error. Could anyone confirm this?

is article "an" before the noun "hour" acceptable?







I have seen many authors uses "an" before "hour" like "an hour" some times. Please consider the below excerpts.





"How long is your break?", I shouted. A group of labourers sat under the banyan tree near the main campus building. "It's two-thirty, lunch ended an hour ago."




and another one is below




I would take his boat for an hour, and buy him tea and biscuits in return.





one more




' I won't take more than half an hour' I promised.




I learned from my teachers that the article "an" comes before vowels and not before consonants. Here "H" is consonant, still author uses the article "an" before "hour".



My question is, is this "an" before "hour" is acceptable? If yes can you explain why?

word choice - What type of pronoun shoould I use before a gerund?

While reviewing grammar, I came upon this sentence:
"I was able to inspect the apartment without his noticing the movement of my eyes."




However, this phrasing seems awkward, especially the "his".
I feel like one of the following two changes would be more grammatical:




I was able to inspect the apartment without him noticing the movement of my eyes.



I was able to inspect the apartment without his noticing of the movement of my eyes.





Are either of these two more "correct"? Or are there any other better changes?

Monday, August 6, 2012

Verb + to infinitive or Verb + ...ing

Is there a general rule whether to use the Verb + to infinitive or the Verb + ...ing format?



There are cases in which I can't decide which one to use.

Like:
-They can't afford to go out very often.
-They can't afford going out very often.
Or:
-I don't mind to wait.
-I don't mind waiting.
Or:
-It was a nice day, so we decided to go for a walk.
-It was a nice day, so we decided going for a walk.

singular they - Correct pronoun for "baby"

Stumbled along the use of the feminine pronoun for "baby". Previously, I've used it and singular they when the sex of the baby is unknown.




  • Is it correct to use the feminine pronoun (she) for "baby" when you don't know if it is a boy or a girl?

  • Can somebody please explain that to me?

  • Here's an example: "At about 6 months, when your baby can sit up, she'll probably be too big to be bathed in an infant tub" (http://www.consumerreports.org/cro/baby-bathtubs/buying-guide.htm)

nouns - French Quality Clothes



How can I make the difference in this kind of sentence :



"French Quality Clothes"




Does it mean :




  • Clothes of the well-known "french quality"



or





  • Quality clothes from France



?



And How can I express the 2 without been misunderstood?


Answer



By placing the adjective before the appropriate word.





Quality French clothes -- (Good) quality clothes of French origin.




and




French quality clothes -- Clothes of (the renowned) French quality.



Sunday, August 5, 2012

grammatical number - is "modus operandi" singular or plural?

Is the phrase (as used in English) "modus operandi" singular or plural? And if the former, what is its plural form [or vice versa]?



(To my untutored eye, "modus" seems to be a singular form, while "operandi" seems to be a plural.)



A search of this site does not reveal anything bearing on the matter.

grammaticality - Is it wrong to start sentences with "in which case"?



I read a few things someone wrote and for the first time I saw a sentence starting with "in which case". This person does that very frequently, and it seemed really wrong to me.



Some time after that I saw another person doing the same (you can see it here, page 9, 5th paragraph). As this person is a very well-known and respected economist, who is also known for his good writing skills, I started to think that maybe it "sounded" weird just because I hadn't seen it before.



In my view "in which case" should be preceded by a comma, but I might be mistaken. My question is then: is it really wrong to start sentences with "in which case" or am I completely off?




EDIT: Here is the paragraph which contains the referred message:




Evil is a strong word. You may find the moral category too severe for
something as mild as breaking a promise. In which case, you may
want to change the title to "Distrust is the Root of all Money". But
that wouldn’t have quite the same ring.



Answer



This is a style issue. As far as I can tell, there's nothing particularly grammatically wrong with the construction itself:





Dougal says that he will beat me to within an inch of my life. In which case I will start carrying a shotgun concealed within my socks.




Personally I dislike this style of writing, which reminds me of the "Yes. It is. As you say." style of "copywriterese".


grammaticality - Using "An" and "A" in a sentence




I'm trying to understand this simple concept.



As far as I understood it, back to the days when I was a student, "an" should be used only before vowel words, that is, only before the following words: "a","i","o","u".



Yesterday my sister asked me a question related to this subject and I wasn't sure if my answer was correct because there are so much controversial sources explaining this subject.



The original question she asked me was which one of the following is the correct form to be used in a sentence:





An history




Or




A history





I told her that she should use "a history" only because 'h' isn't a vowel word. Is it correct?



Thank you very much


Answer



Words of one or two syllables beginning with ‘h’ are normally preceded by ‘a’. They include ‘hotel’, ‘hostel’, ‘host’, ‘hearty’, ‘hero’ and ‘hardy’. (Some speakers may say ‘an hotel’, because ‘hotel’ is also a French word, in which the ‘h’ is not aspirated.)



Words of three or more syllables beginning with ‘h’ in which the first syllable is stressed are also preceded by ‘a’. They include ‘history’, ‘herbalist’, ‘heightening’ and ‘helicopter’.



Words of three or more syllables beginning with ‘h’ in which the second syllable is stressed give rise to some uncertainty. They include ‘historian’, ‘historical, ‘hiatus’ and ‘Hibernian’. I and some other speakers of British English precede them with ‘an’, but others don’t.


orthography - Is the possessive of "one" spelled "ones" or "one's"?



I've been confused about this as long as I can remember. Should it be:




One should do ones duty.




or





One should do one's duty.




I'm guessing it should be the latter. But that doesn't sit well with the possessive pronoun 'its'. For example:




It is its own purpose.





vs.




It is it's own purpose.




Here, the former seems clearly correct.


Answer



The correct answer is one's!




All possessives get an apostrophe, except the standard possessive pronouns and these are:




yours, his, hers, ours, theirs, its




Apart of these, always add an apostrophe.


The modal verb would

Longman Advanced Learners' grammar says: (p 27/7)





  1. Dad would always help us out financially when we were
    at university, however difficult it was for him.



Is it correct to use 'would' in this context?



Or should it be:



1b. Dad always helped us out financially when we were

at university, however difficult it was for him.

negation - Answering negative questions with "Yeah."

I know I need to answer in the same way regardless of questions are positive or negative in English.




For example, when I didn't go to work yesterday,



Q. Didn't you go to work yesterday? (Did you go to work yesterday?)
A. No I didn't.



I am still taking time when answering negative questions in the real life, because in the language I was using before, it was deferent way. If I say yes to negative questions, it means I agree asker's negative questions. Anyway, I have been adapting to the English way to answer.



But what confuses me is that I meet those kind of native speakers who answer "Yeah." to the negative questions.




For example,



Q. You don't want to go?
A. Yeah. (When he/she doesn't want to go.)



There have been many of native English speaker answering like this. So I am wondering if there is a difference between 'yes' and 'yeah'.

word choice - If you can't use “he”, “she” or “they” in a sentence, what do you use?

I was waiting for a plane to take off last week, when we had to taxi back to the terminal building to disembark a sick passenger. We weren't told whether the passenger was male or female.



I was thinking about how to tell people about it, but realised I couldn't say that 'He' or 'She' disembarked, because I didn't know the sex. I couldn't say 'They' because I knew there was only one and I couldn't say 'It', because it wasn't an object. Without saying 'The sick passenger' disembarked, what word could I use?

Saturday, August 4, 2012

idioms - Why 'a friend of mine' is not 'my friend's friend'?

I have some questions about the expression "a friend of mine" and I'm quite confused with it. Actually I have found some threads about this topic but they don't hit my point. I'm not a native English speaker.



General people may interpret that "a friend of mine" is "one of my friends" but it sounds to me like "a friend of my friend" or "my friend's friend" who I may or may not know him/her. I was taught that "mine" is a possessive pronoun and it's used to replace the noun mentioned earlier; for example, This is Adèle's book so the book is hers.




  1. Why "a friend of mine" is not "a friend of my friend"? And why "a daughter of mine" is not "my daughter's daughter" or "my grand daughter"?


  2. Why we use "a friend of mine" instead of "a friend of me" to mean "my friend" but we use "a part of it" to mean "its part"? "Mine" is a possessive pronoun but "it" is an object pronoun.





I probably have read all things people trying to answer the questions but I still haven't found the comprehensive rules yet. Can anyone give the comprehensive rules for using the double-possessive form?



I myself may conclude that:
1. The double-possessive form is used when the personal subject pronoun is used.
2. If the noun indicating that the owner is a person or people, either the double-possessive form or the noun itself is used but slightly different in interpretation.
3. If the possesser is an animal, robot, or any inanimated objects; the objective pronoun or the noun itself should be used.



Anyway, is there any mistakes or leakages in those rules?




so I can say that:




a friend of mine = my friend
a computer of yours = your computer
a house if his = his house
a book of hers = her book
a school of ours = our school
a car of theirs = their car
a part of it (not a part of its) = its part
a shirt of Mary's = Mary's shirt (Mary has many shirts)
a shirt of Mary = Mary's shirt (Mary can either has only one shirt or many shirts)
a wing of a bird = a bird's wing
a leg of a robot = a robot's leg (one of the robot's leg)
an office of an engineer = an engineer's office (one of the or only office(s) of a certain engineer)
an enemy of France = France's enemy (one of France's enemies)




Is that correct?



Thank you for all of your answers. They are very helpful.

pronunciation - How many syllables in the -ism suffix?



How do you commonly syllabicate words that end with -ism? When I pronounce -ism, it sounds like two syllables, (feudalism sounds like 4 syllables, racism sounds like 3 syllables), but in general, a syllable requires a vowel, which we don't have in this case. So technically speaking, does the -ism suffix have 1 syllable or 2 syllables?


Answer



The suffix "-ism" is generally analyzed as having two syllables. However, the second syllable is not particularly prominent, and no contrast in syllabifiation is possible for this word in any variety of English that I know of, which may explain why some speakers don't have particularly strong intuitions about this. Also, depending on what linguistic theory you are working with, syllabification might not be considered a particularly fundamental feature of pronunciation, and the syllabic pronunciation of the "m" in this context might be considered to be just a contextual variant of the same sound found in non-syllabic form at the start of meet or the end of team.



Most varieties of English are thought to have sounds called "syllabic resonants": sounds like m, n, l, and in some varieties of the language r can occur not only in the onset or coda of a syllable, but as the nucleus of a syllable. I won't discuss l and r any further here because they are a bit more complicated to analyze.



Syllabic n and m only occur in unstressed syllables, and for many (I think most) speakers there is no noticeable phonemic contrast between syllabic n and m (written in IPA as n̩ and m̩ respectively) and the sequences /ən/ and /əm/. There is certainly no stable phonemic contrast between these sequences that applies to the general community of English speakers.




One thing to keep in mind is that some speakers produce and/or perceive a non-phonemic distinction between [ən], [əm] and [n̩], [m̩]; for these speakers, probably only the latter would be described as a "syllabic resonant". The exact distribution of phonetic syllabic resonants vs. phonetic [ə] + resonant sequences seems to vary somewhat between dialects. For example, this blog post by John Wells indicates that in "RP-style English", [ən] is used instead of [n̩] after a nasal or vowel (Wells gives the examples of common and lion). For more information about phonetic details like this, see the last section of this answer.



There is little contrast between syllabic /əm~m̩/ and non-syllabic /m/



There are fairly few contexts where syllabic resonants have a clear phonemic contrast with the equivalent non-syllabic resonants. As far as I can tell, the only contexts where there is a strong phonemic contrast between e.g. /ən~n̩/ and /n/ are after a vowel, as in "Owen" vs. "own", after a liquid, as in the near-minimal pair of "Aaron" vs. "cairn" (for an American English speaker) or "film" vs. "vexillum", and (to a lesser extent) before a vowel, especially a stressed or unreduced vowel, as in transnational vs. fascination.



Since the "m" in -ism is neither preceded nor followed by a vowel, there is no possible phonemic contrast between syllabic and non-syllabic pronunciations. Most speakers think it sounds syllabic (i.e. /əm/), and this fits in better with the usual structure of English syllables, but some people apparently don't hear this. (There is not a huge difference between the sound of n̩ and n, or m̩ and m.)



In poetry, it is often possible to use "compressed" pronunciations where a syllabic resonant doesn't count as a syllable: e.g. words like heaven and given may be treated as monosyllables (these may be written as "heav'n" and "giv'n").




Syllabification isn't based on the presence of a vowel letter in spelling



Syllabic "m" does occur in some contexts where it is written with a preceding vowel letter, such as (for many speakers) in the words bottom, fathom and bosom. However, unfortunately, I don't know of any commonly used words where the sequence /ɪzm̩/~/ɪzəm/ is written with a vowel letter before the letter "m", so it doesn't seem to be possible to do a rhyme test. However, tchrist pointed out the similar word "rhythm" which I think most speakers would feel has two syllables.



I wouldn't put much weight on the spelling as a source of information about how to pronounce the word, though—many words with syllabic resonants are spelled without vowel letters before the consonant letter, like fiddle and centre, or brand names like Tumblr and Flickr (which don't even have a final silent "e").



More phonetic details



Throughout this answer, I've been focusing on the phonological contrasts at the "surface" level. The phonetics of syllabic resonants vs. schwa-resonant sequences, and the possible implications for the "deeper" levels of phonology, are quite complicated (see e.g. The Phonetics and Phonology of some Syllabic Consonants in Southern British English, Zoë Toft, 2002) and I haven't studied them enough to be able to say anything helpful in this regard.