Monday, June 30, 2014

grammatical number - "40-50 years old" vs. "40-50 year olds" when referring to a group



In formal research, which is more correct, and why:





  • the group of 40-50 years old
    OR

  • the group of 40-50 year olds



In any case the phrase in bold is to be treated as a noun only, as in:





The middle group of executives, ie. 40-50 years old is well
balanced....




Without a range, the hyphenation rules I am used to would suggest "15-year olds" for instance. However "the 15-25-year olds ..." doesn't present well, does it?



There are related questions here, but none that seem to exactly address this topic. Eg.



Pluralization rule for "five-year-old children", "20 pound note", "10 mile run"




The main difference perhaps is that I need to use ranges, which already use a hyphen.


Answer



If you are using it as a compound adjective or noun, as in your example sentence, it should be "40-50-year-olds".



If you are using it as a separate qualifier, as in BillFranke's suggested alternate wording, than it would be "those 40-50 years old".



Confusing, perhaps, but the general rule is that when any sort of counted "thing" is used as an adjective, the object of the count is singular. "40-year-old man", "3-mile run", etc. Making it a range instead of a single number doesn't change that.



But when a number and an object of that number are used "on their own", i.e. not as a compound word, the normal rules of pluralization apply: "those 1 year old", "those 2 years old", etc.


Using a comma before a subordinate clause

It is very common that we don't insert a comma before a subordinate clause at end position as follows:




The President was opening a new university when a bomb went off.




However, I came across the same construction with a comma:





The President was opening a new university, when a bomb went off.




My question is, what is the function of the comma in the above construction?

What tense should this sentence be phrased in based on the accompanying action which has taken place?




In the following scenario you can buy/sell offices in different cities, so say the user purchases an office in London, then the user sells it and we wish to show the user a message that the sale has taken place, should it be phrased like:



this,




You sold your Office which is situated in London for 495,000.





or




You sold your Office which was situated in London for 495,000.



Answer



It is generally phrased as something like:
"Your London office (or office in London) has just sold for $495,000".
This is because of aspect in reference to past tense.



Sunday, June 29, 2014

ambiguity - Can "myself" stand for both "me" and "I" in "my mother and I/me"?







In one of my older questions I asked for an explanation of the difference between “people like you” and “people like yourself”, where it's clear that yourself can stand instead of you in such sentence.



What bothers me more is another, more difficult situation:







Let's define the correct sentence:




My mother and I were standing at the bus stop.




Now, in the above sentence, can I emphasize my own person by doing the following?





My mother and myself were standing at the bus stop.







Also, trying with another sentence, but a bit difference:





They saw my mother and me standing at the bus stop.




Can I do the same with this sentence too?




They saw my mother and myself standing at the bus stop.








If both of the above situations are correct, that means that myself can be used instead of both me and I, thus becoming ambiguous?

etymology - How did 'flapper' evolve from a derogatory term into a cultural identity?



The word "flapper," in popular culture, is most often associated with young, progressive, unconventional women of the 1920's in the U.S.



According to both the OED and Green's Dictionary of Slang, the word "flapper" appears to have been in its earliest form a derogatory reference. In fact, the earliest meaning of the word with regard to young women was apparently "a teenage prostitute."



Per OED:





1893 J. S. Farmer Slang Flapper..(3) A very young prostitute.




GDoS also offers an earlier definition related to prostitution. The citations appear to suggest that the earliest derogatory uses of the term were British.



Yet by at least 1920 (and apparently earlier), the term seemed to have evolved into a cultural identity embraced by the "flappers" themselves, referring to young adults as opposed to children.






According to Billie Melman's Women and the Popular Imagination in the Twenties: Flappers and Nymphs (1988), two early meanings arose around the same time, one referring generally to "sexually innocent youth," and another referring to very young prostitutes.





Around 1870 'flapper' acquired two novel meanings. It came to signify a female adolescent on the eve of her début in society, recognisable by the mane flapping down her back. The image this particular usage conveys is one of indecorous and sexually innocent youth...



At about the same time 'flapper' had come to signify a child prostitute - 'A very young girl trained to vice' (1899), 'a very young prostitute' (1893) - and, occasionally, the male sexual organ. The two usages, the one celebrating sexual innocense, the other vice and deviance, are closer than they first appear to be...



The simultaneous emergence of the two meanings reflects the ambivalent attitude of the Victorians towards feminine youth and sexuality... On the one hand, the image of the socially segregated girl was one of perfect purity and chastity, the ideal of desexualised womanhood. On the other hand, this very image epitomised illicit sexuality in one of its most sinister forms: a thriving trade in child prostitution...



After the First World War... it came to mean not so much an immoral young girl as, more characteristically, a disfranchised adult (i.e. a young woman past her twenty-first birthday).





Questions



Is it true that the early contradictory meanings mentioned by Melman arose simultaneously? If so, did the more well-known meaning referring to women of the 1920s in the U.S. derive from one or the other of these early meanings, and how did the change take place?


Answer



I think that flapper to refer to a prostitute was always only ever a minor, indirect or euphemistic use of the word.



Here are a few articles in Australian newspapers for 1903-17 which clearly use flapper to mean a fashionable, fun-loving young woman with no hint of prostitution. The term seems to be only mildly derogatory with an implication of shallowness.



In 1903 the “Gossip for Women” column tells us:





To-morrow (Thursday) about 24 "flappers" are giving a dance at the Paddington Town Hall. The name, I may mention, that has surrounded this festivity hails from the fact that the youthful hostesses all still claim the charms of "hair down." Under 17 is, I believe, the age that marks the flapper and permits the maiden to skip and jump (should she so desire) without any sudden interference from Mrs. Grundy. Lucky flapper ! The dance in question promises to be delightful, and Rita's excitement at her being included — in spite of her looks resting peace fully on ton of her head — is quite cheerful to witness.




In 1910 an article titled “The Age of Marriage – Too Old at Twenty” says”




Nowadays a girl of twenty is considered only just grown up, and, in fact, has only just got over the indignity of being called a "flapper." and at thirty a man is absurdly young …





A 1915 article about a school pantomime says:




** PANTOMIME CHILDREN ATTEND SCHOOL** Mr. Win. Anderson's "Sinbad the Sailor" Pantomime Company has amongst its members four juveniles whose ages range from 12 to 14, and their State school education is not impaired. Mr. Fanning, the manager, has what might be termed travelling transfers for them and at each town visited he sees that they attend a school during their stay. Yesterday morning Mr. Fanning escorted them to the Flinders School. Most of the '"flappers'' who form the unusually joyous ballet are a year or two above school age.




A 1917 sewing article says:





** A SIMPLE FROCK FOR THE SCHOOL GIRL. -- PRETTY AND PRACTICAL** The flapper of the family will probably want, or at any rate insistently demand, a new frock of some sort or other for holiday wear. Now I would suggest that a really charming frock might be made at home for a very modest sum […]




A 1917 article titled “Women Magistrates” is more critical of flappers but clearly makes a distinction between them and prostitutes:




[...] Another charge, on which quite a number of young, girls are arrested weekly is that of soliciting. Here, I maintain, that a man is Incapable of judging; in nine cases out of 10. The policeman' sees a flapper go up to a Tommy and ask him. "What are you doing this evening?" He comes to the conclusion that she is accosting him for immoral reasons, and he acts as duty bids him. More often than, not he is wrong.
You will find that tho temptation thrown on young women from the time they are flappers is enormous. They are light-hearted, asking for excitement; they are non-moral, and that is the result of the social conditions of the present day. They are determined to have a good time at all costs. And so the girl who may merely want to be taken, to a picture palace, or who may have succumbed to the glamor of khaki, is classed together with the professional loose woman. [...]



grammar - Staff "are" or staff "is"

Which is correct in the following example?



"The following staff are/is (?) absent today:



John Doe
Jane Doe
Bob Doe"

word choice - I can run faster than _____. (1) him (2) he?




Consider the sentence "I can run faster than 15 miles per hour." Its meaning is clear and to my eyes obviously grammatically correct. Now let me present some variations that have given me trouble for a long time.




  • I am faster than 15 miles per hour. – To me this is clearly incorrect. Directly comparing me to a speed doesn't seem right. We need to compare my speed to a speed, or me to another person.


  • I can run faster than him. – Compared to the base sentence, there is a distinct shift in meaning of the comparison. While before I named a speed faster than which I can run, now I am naming a person. It doesn't seem quite right. I realize the parts of speech can change, but my initial objection is that "him" is not a speed.


  • I can run faster than he. – This seems most correct to me, but still somehow feels objectionable. Is this in fact the correct way to say it? And if so, is it proper as is or need I say "... faster than he can" or even "... faster than he can run?"


  • I am faster than him. – With "am" instead of "can run" it now seems slightly more correct. But is it?


  • I am faster than he. – I'm in doubt here. It doesn't seem wrong to me to say, "I am faster than he is" or even "I am faster than he is fast." (Though I suppose that is a given since I could hardly properly compare to some other category as in "I am faster than he is smart.")


  • My speed is faster than his. – Hmm. This seems more proper as "my speed is greater than his."





So which of these constructions is correct and which is incorrect? Is there a general rule that I can follow?



UPDATE



The scholarly article Syntactic isomorphism and non-isomorphism under ellipsis may be of great interest to some readers!




Once we accept that the elided constituent and its antecedent can differ in form, it becomes reasonable to ask how large this difference can be. The answer in Rooth (1992), Fiengo and May (1994), Chung et al. (1995) and subsequent work is that the wiggle room is actually quite small: the elided constituent and its antecedent are allowed to differ only in the realization of inflectional morphology. Other than that, both constituents have to be syntactically and lexically isomorphic.




Answer



You find both accusative pronouns (me/him/her/them) and nominative pronouns (I/he/she/they) in this syntactic position in standard English. The forms with the nominal genitive pronouns (mine/yours/hers etc.) are a red herring because they stand for something possessed rather than the person themself.



The traditional rule for comparison with a person is that you must use nominative. However, according to my research, accusative is more common.



I searched the Corpus of Contemporary American English for this syntactic structure, followed by a comma or a period to ensure we are not looking for cases like faster than he is, with a verb following the pronoun, in which case nominative is obligatory.



There were 1046 results for the accusative pronouns and 450 for nominative pronouns, more than 2 to 1 in favor of accusative pronouns—the “traditionally wrong” form. Both forms are standard, so my advice to a writer choosing between these forms is to consider that the “traditionally correct” form is unimpeachably correct but a bit formal. Choose the form that best matches tone and formality level of your writing.




For the curious, the queries looked like this:



[jjr*] than me|him|her|us|them .|,
[jjr*] than I|he|she|we|they .|,


where[jjr*] means any comparative adjective.



Update 2011-05-23




Using the new Google Book Corpus search, I was able to construct a Google ngrams-like graph comparing these usages over time, using these two queries: accusative, nominative:



Google ngram comparing case after than



As you can see, until the late 1980s, the formal usage was more common than the informal usage. Since then, however, accusative has very rapidly eclipsed nominative, even in this corpus, which represents professionally published works.


grammaticality - "How big of a problem" vs. "how big a problem"




Quite a few phrases in English are constructed like so:




How [adjective] a [noun]...?




This is the question form of the construction, which is often answered with the negative:





Not that [adjective] a [noun].




or the positive:




Quite [adjective] a [noun].




However, from time to time I'll hear the word 'of' inserted before the 'a', e.g.:





Not that [adjective] of a [noun].




This usually sounds wrong to me, with the exception of the case where the adjective 'much' is used. So, this sounds fine to my ear:




Not that much of a problem.





whereas this doesn't:




Not that loud of a noise.




Why is it that 'much' should be used with 'of', and other adjectives not? Is it because 'much' is seen as measuring a quantity (of something), whereas other adjectives that may be used in this construction are seen as measuring the quality of a whole thing?


Answer



What about "not that high (of) a fence"? "not that red (of) a heart" "not that smart (of) a person? not that big (of) a problem?




I would argue that if you use the word that to qualify the adjective, the of conveys the meaning of comparison of a specific entity to the class of general entities to which it belongs.



I'm sure the usage can be regional, as well. There is no hard and fast rule.



EDIT



Hey, I did some more research. Dictionary.com has the following usage note for "of" :





Of is sometimes added to phrases beginning with the adverb how or too followed by a descriptive adjective: How long of a drive will it be? It's too hot of a day for tennis. This construction is probably modeled on that in which how or too is followed by much, an unquestionably standard use in all varieties of speech and writing: How much of a problem will that cause the government? There was too much of an uproar for the speaker to be heard. The use of of with descriptive adjectives after how or too is largely restricted to informal speech. It occurs occasionally in informal writing and written representations of speech.




So, I suppose that's the reason why adjectives other than "much" combined with "of" sound odd to your ear. I believe "that" can be included with "how" or "too" in this synopsis. Replacing "much" with another adjective occurs occasionally in informal writing and in speech, but isn't unquestionably standard.



When I say these constructions out loud, to me, I often want to insert the of but perhaps that has something more to say about the informality of my speech rather than the correctness of the construction. :)


grammar - Use of "never" in questions



I was taught that ever should be used in questions (Have you ever...?) and never should be used in negations (I have never...). But reading "A wizard of Earthsea" by Ursula K. Le Guin I spotted such a sentence: "Have you never thought how danger must surround power as shadow does light?"



Is that grammatically correct?
What does the author want to say by this?


Answer



Consider the slight difference between the two following sentences:





Do you love her?



Don't you love her?




The first is a mere question that requires an answer — yes or no. The second implies surprise. The asker would assume that he does love her, but has some (indirect) evidence for the contrary and is expressing his surprise with a negative interrogative question.



Now, the same difference is between:





Have you ever thought...?




which is just a question with no special implication of surprise, and




Have you never thought...?




which implies that the person who's asking expects one to have thought about it.




Using never in an interrogative question makes it negative-interrogative, e.g. "Aren't you...?" "Didn't he...?" "Won't they...?" etc.


Saturday, June 28, 2014

apostrophe - The Jones's, Joneses, or Jones'?

I am calligraphing holiday ornaments. I have been given a list of names. Which is correct when a name ends in an es, "The Jones's, or The Joneses, or The Jones'?"




Also, when it does not end in an es, is it "The Smith's, The Smithes, or The Smiths', or The Smiths ?"

Why is "any" not classified as an article?

Answering the question, Use of articles with adjectives, got me thinking. Why is the word "any" not classified as an article? We learn in grade school that the three English articles are "a", "an", and "the". Later on we learn that articles are part of a larger class called determiners.



Numerous dictionaries, including this one, declare any to be a pronoun and determiner. But look at this sequence:





a --> an --> any




(Should I drop the mic now? Nah, I'll continue in case any of you feel stubborn. 😉)



Whether you agree or not, think about the following:




  1. The word a is one of the indefinite articles for singular nouns, used before a word beginning with a consonant sound. A cat is sleeping.


  2. The word an is one of the indefinite articles for singular nouns, used before a word beginning with a vowel sound. An owl just hooted.

  3. The word any is the indefinite article for plural nouns, regardless of what the next word is. Are there any red shirts? It may sometimes substitute for a and an to force the specific context of "one among many". [e.g., "plural-like"] Any book will do.

  4. The word the is the definite article for nouns, both singular and plural, regardless of what the next word is. It supports multiple contexts, but always offers definiteness:


    • The Mona Lisa smiled at me. [uniqueness]

    • The black kitten smiled at me! [one among many (definite form)]

    • The three kittens with white paws were so cute! [some among many]

    • We found homes for all the kittens. [all]



  5. Neither a nor an can be used with a plural noun. If any is not an indefinite article, a plural form does not exist.



I discern two differences with the accepted indefinite articles. The first is that any can also be a pronoun. Any of them will do. So what? The word a can also be a noun, the first letter of the Latin alphabet. Do we really need the second a of aardvark?



The second difference is that any can force the specific context mentioned in item #3. The (other) articles force a context as well, indefiniteness or definiteness. This is illustrated in the following conversation between two kids:




An ant bit me!
Which one?
I don't know, but it wasn't the one on your arm.
Damn! Any ants are too many. I don't want any ant to bite me.
I know, right? Let's go see if we can find a bandage.





In other words, a, an, any, and the all force contexts. That's sort of their point. So why is any the one left out?

Friday, June 27, 2014

differences - When should I use "corpuses" over "corpora"?



I've come into a situation where I need to use the plural form of corpus, but I'm a bit confused about which plural form to use.



Merriam-Webster says the only plural form is corpora, for all senses of the word. However, Random House/Dictionary.com says it's corpora for every sense except the linguistic sense:




Linguistics . a body of utterances, as words or sentences, assumed to be representative of and used for lexical, grammatical, or other linguistic analysis.





In this sense, it's corpuses.



In my specific situation, I have a collection of data—to be processed—about a class of objects that can be swapped out at will (thus the reference to more than one corpus). To me, this satisfies the first sense of the word ("a large or complete collection of writings")—where the plural is corpora—as well as the linguistic sense of the word—where the plural is corpuses.



So what's the significant difference between these two senses of the word? When is corpora correct, and when is corpuses correct?


Answer



The OED records corpora as the only plural, and that’s all I’ve ever seen in a linguistics context, or in any other for that matter. The entire OED has 71 citations that include corpora (admittedly with various meanings) and only one that includes corpuses. Corpus data also shows a far higher frequency of corpora over corpuses. Still, corpuses certainly exists, and with no apparent difference in meaning. If you’re conservative, use corpora. If you’re feeling adventurous, use corpuses.


proper nouns - Possessive function of a business name which is made with a possessive

Garner's fourth edition, page 714, states regarding the name McDonald’s




It is quite defensible to write McDonald’s dinner combos (the name
functioning as a kind of possessive)





On what grounds can a business name which is made with a possessive function as a (kind of) possessive?



Secondly, is the same true for a business name created with a plural noun, therefore ending in -s'? (I am not a native speaker, and unfortunately cannot come up with an example right now)

Thursday, June 26, 2014

single word requests - Is there a name for a building that produces potions?



A few friends and I are developing a game that involves producing potions, however we're finding it hard to think of the name for a building suited to producing potions specifically.



Some names we have thought of include:




  • Workshop

  • Factory (This seems like more of a modern term, which goes against the setting of our game)

  • Brewery


  • Laboratory

  • Pharmacy



Does anybody know if there a more suitable name that we can use?


Answer



It was mentioned in the comments, and I agree: apothecary is probably your best bet.






  1. a druggist; a pharmacist.

  2. a pharmacy or drugstore.




(dictionary.com)



It can be used to describe either the place itself or the person who runs the place. Coupled with it's medieval etymology, it should give you the feel that you're looking for.


What is the correct way to write multiple possessives, rather than the common way?

In the phrase, "Tim Rice and Andrew Lloyd Webber's Jesus Christ Superstar...," I believe Rice should end in 's, as Webber does, because the show is as much Rice's as it is his partner's. However, whenever I've seen multiple nouns in a possessive, the first noun does not have thhe 's. I cannot fine a grammar rule to address this. Is it a case in which people have written and said it wrong for so long, the incorrect use has become acceptable? Which use is correct?

conditionals - Is the tense change of the verb "need" to "needed" mandatory?

If the tense change of the verb "need" to "needed" is not mandatory, then if it was changed then how would it affect the meaning in the sentences below?





If they asked for help, I would provide whatever help they need.
If they asked for help, I would provide whatever help they needed.


Comma after introductory phrase followed by a verb

While researching the use of commas after introductory prepositional phrases, I came across a document from a university in Texas . In the section for prepositional phrases, it stated, "Never place a comma after a phrase that is immediately followed by a verb."



The given example was



"Into the raging river plummeted the raft with its frightened occupants."



Is this a commonly followed guideline? I've never heard it before. Also, is this guideline the case for any introductory phrase or just prepositional phrase?




For example, if I understand the university's guideline correctly, I should not use a comma in the following sentence because the introductory phrase is followed by a verb. (As a side note, my guideline at work is to place a comma after introductory prepositional phrases of four or more words.)



"With the blue feather write each spelling word in the air." (This example is a spelling activity for children.)



But if it were worded this way, it would take a comma:



"With the blue feather, please write each spelling word in the air."



Or, worded as a statement rather than an imperative--in case that matters:




"With the blue feather, the girl will write each spelling word in the air."



Would I use a comma after this introductory phrase, though, which I believe is a participial phrase? Or does the same guideline apply to all introductory phrase, and I should leave the comma out because this phrase is directly followed by a verb?



"Using chalk, write each word on the chalkboard."



Versus wording it this way which does not have a verb following the introductory phrase:



"Using chalk, Harry wrote each word on the chalkboard."




TIA!

The light's path or light's path? Can I use articles with apostrophes?

I've been told that "The Dirac's equation" is not grammatically acceptable. The correct should be "Dirac's equation" or "The Dirac equation".



I'm wondering if this has something to do with Dirac being the name of someone or if this is a general rule. My case, specifically, concerns the phrase I used in the title. Which one is the correct version:




a - "(...) the correction of the light's path"



b - "(...) the correction of light's path"



c - "(...) the correction of the light path"



What I mean is the path that a ray of light follows.



Thank you very much.

grammaticality - I and am



I sometimes find myself writing something like this:





XXX is a project I admire and am very interested in.




The "I and am " feels strange here. It somehow sounds more natural in the third person: "He admires and is very interested in...."



Am I just imagining things – is it OK to use this construction, or should I use something completely different?


Answer



This sentence is an example of Conjunction Reduction, the syntactic rule that deletes repeated material in conjoined constituents, for example





  • Bill washed the dishes and Bill swept the floor.
    Bill washed the dishes and swept the floor.

  • Bill washed the dishes and Bill dried the dishes.
    Bill washed and dried the dishes.



The relative clause modifying project in the original sentence is the focus, so let's get it out of a subordinate clause and see what it looks like:




  • I admire and am very interested in the project.




which comes from




  • I admire the project and I am very interested in the project.



by a perfectly normal application of Conjunction Reduction.



There's nothing grammatically wrong with this sentence.




One thing that may make it feel wrong to some -- but not others; there's a lot of individual variation here, since everybody makes up their own internal rules, for their own reasons, about what "sounds right" -- is that the first verb of the conjoined VP (admire) is uninflected for person and number, while the second verb (am) is inflected, for first person singular present tense.



Both verbs agree of course with the same subject, but morphologically instead of syntactically, which may produce some distress to those who require more grammatical parallelism between conjoined verbs.



Another related difficulty might be that the inflected form am is so closely linked to its subject pronoun I that it is difficult to separate them, and indeed most of the time they're contracted to I'm. This makes am feel rather isolated out there.



Again, this isn't a grammatical problem per se, but it can occasion some distress in some readers.



I say "readers" because nobody would say such a sentence, of course. We'd say I'm instead of am, by repeating the subject -- and adding no new syllables, so timing isn't affected. This is allowed syntactically because Conjunction Reduction is an optional rule applied to reduce unwelcome repetition, and in any given case this repetition may simply not be unwelcome.


hyphenation - Question on hyphenated words

My niece and I do the layout and editing for books. Lately, she has started letting her program hyphenate words at the ends of sentences to avoid the rivers of white you see otherwise. This has created lots of problems for hyphenation. Sure, I can look them up in the dictionary, but the dictionary is not always clear about the endings of other forms of the words. For example, is it attend-ed or should it be atten-ded? It just isn't always clear on these other forms of the words. And it doesn't always seem to follow the same rules when you can find examples.

grammar - Compound adverb — "kick-start a party soccer style"

I have asked this question in ELL site, but there were not much reply, and so I decided to ask the same question here. Though I will change the question a little bit to exactly what I need more and to stop you from repeating the same answer that I already got from ELL site.



Here is the link for my question in ELL




Times Life tells you how to kick-start a party soccer style as the FIFA World Cup 2014, in Brazil, gets underway.
The Times of India




I understand the meaning of this sentence, but I was curious to know that why there was no in before the bold part of the quoted sentence.




One answer in ELL site suggests that soccer style is by itself acting as an adverb. Hence there is no need for any preposition. Fine with me, but I am wondering how to decide which compound words I will use as an adverb and which I won't.

Wednesday, June 25, 2014

Serial comma causing ambiguity

EDIT: This question is not addressed by Oxford Comma Conventions, if I'm wrong, then please provide a link to a particular answer or comment that does address my question. (Such links appear in timestamps.)



In Writing: Grammar, Usage, and Style, Jean Eggenschwiler & Emily Dotson Biggs advocate a serial comma in the following sentence:




He bought a dishwasher, microwave, refrigerator, and washer from the outlet.





Yet, the inclusion of a serial comma seems to introduce an ambiguity: It seems unclear whether all items (i.e., the dishwasher, microwave, refrigerator, and washer) were bought from the outlet, or just the washer. Would omitting the serial comma be better? I.e., does sentence




He bought a dishwasher, microwave, refrigerator and washer from the outlet.




improve upon the original?

grammatical number - Smoking, drinking and eating are not allowed



I live in Bangkok and on the intercom in the subway they constantly say Smoking, drinking and eating are not allowed. To me it sounds weird. I’d say Smoking, drinking and eating is not allowed.



Because you would normally say It’s not allowed to smoke, drink or eat.



Can someone explain what is the grammatically “correct” way to say this? And maybe explain why I find it so awkward.


Answer





Smoking, drinking and eating is not allowed




would mean that if you try to smoke, drink and eat all at the same time, as one activity (good luck with that!), then that activity is not allowed.



But smoking, drinking or eating (as separate activities) would be ok.




Smoking, drinking and eating are not allowed





means that neither smoking, nor drinking, nor eating, is allowed. Collectively they are not allowed.



So the subway authorities probably do intend the latter meaning, although I'm just guessing.



Let's do a little research:



Bangkok subway rules



Aha. Neither smoking nor eating nor drinking is allowed. All three of them are forbidden.




Littering is also forbidden (littering is one action - use 'is'), as are large belongings (the belongings themselves are plural - use 'are').



The possession of balloons is also forbidden (the balloons themselves are plural but 'possession' is a single action - use 'is').



It seems particularly harsh to completely forbid 'sitting'. Is this a mistranslation of 'sitting on the floor'? Or does this sign apply only to an area without seats (such as a corridor)?


formality - Addressing a person with "man"



Is there any issue to address or call a person (a gentleman, of course) with man? I think the word man has a strange meaning. Which is the best way to address? Is hello enough?



Answer



"Man" is used in informal contexts. If you are talking to a friend or a new acquaintance you could address them as "man," but it is not fitting for a formal/professional environment.


For which reason vs For that reason

I know that 'which' and 'that' open non-restrictive and restrictive clauses, respectively.
However, intuitively, it seems to me that they don't have the same functions in the phrases 'for which reason' and 'for that reason'.




Does 'for which reason' mean 'for one reason of an undefined number of reasons'.
and 'for that reason' mean 'for only this reason'.



What is the difference of 'for which' and 'for that' as used in the above examples?



Thank you

verbs - Meaning and usage of "languish"

I have a few questions about the verb 'to languish.'




  1. In the OED, it suggests that this word must be used for a living thing. Couldn't it be used metaphorically for something like an idea or a literary genre that has a kind of "life?"



  2. Most usage suggests that languish cannot have an object. Can't languish be used with a prepositional phrase (with an object of course), for instance? Can something languish into a pale imitation of itself? This usage (languish into) was more common 200 years ago but has almost died out according to ngram. Any ideas on why?




Any clarification would be greatly appreciated!



(I posted this in the wrong place at first, apologies for repost)

Tuesday, June 24, 2014

word choice - "Which" or "what" or ... when referring to a main clause?



There are many answered questions that address the usage of "which" and "what" on this site—many of them marked as duplicates—and there is even a specific tag for this topic. But I could not find any answer for the following question:



Should I use "which" or "what" or something else if I want to express





A does B which/what causes C.




Therein, "which/what" (the "which" or the "what") should not refer to B but to the act of A doing B (i.e. the predicate of the main clause).



For example see these alternatives:





Bob writes on the blackboard which causes a screeching noise.
Bob writes on the blackboard what causes a screeching noise.




Please note: The noise is caused by the writing not by the blackboard.



Side question: Would the use of a comma be appropriate here?



There is a closely related question, "Do we use “which” or “that” when referring to the preceding main clause as a whole?", that aims on "which" versus "that" as the alternatives and is answered in favor of "which". But maybe "what" would be the better choice here.


Answer



You need to use which. And you need a comma, otherwise the which may be interpreted as introducing a defining or restrictive relative clause with blackboard as its antecedent:





  • Bob writes on the blackboard, which causes a screeching noise.



Swan in Practical English Usage (p495) has a section in relatives with the title: 'which referring to a whole clause':




Which can refer not only to a noun, but also to the whole of a previous clause. Note that what cannot be used in this way:




He got married again a year later, which surprised everybody
(NOT...,what surprised everybody).




A final point: we usually write on the blackboard, not to it.


grammar - What's the difference between "you" and "one" in the indefinite?



English, especially in the colloquial, often uses you for generic statements about people. For example, When you are angry, you act less rationally is not necessarily a statement about the listener, but about people in general. However, it's also correct (as far as I know) to say When one is angry, one acts less rationally. Is there a difference between these two forms? Is one of them more correct than the other?


Answer



It's generally regarded that the two are grammatically acceptable pronouns in American English. However, "one" is also considered to be more formal than you and excessive use of the word can lead one to appear as overly haughty or pretentious. One can use the pronoun "one" as an impersonal pronoun that's representative of the average person - this generalization can lead to a sense of social superiority.



One of them isn't really more correct than the other - however, "one" can sound rather pedantic when used in relaxed or informal settings. This is realized in the object case when "one" sounds quite odd - "When lemons are handed to one, one should make lemonade."



Sources: Grammar Girl and Capital Community College Foundation


Monday, June 23, 2014

word choice - another term for "that "

I was reading a book with the words





and a smile that tells me that I picked the right one




the two "that" in the sentence makes me uneasy. Is there another term we can use to replace the other?

grammatical number - How to write the "plural of plural"?



I'm always confused how to write a "something of something else" in English, especially when plural is involved. For example, what would be the correct way to write the following sentences in English:



There are three phones, each phone is of a different type:




  • Three types of phones?

  • Three phone types?

  • Three types of phone?




Similarly, there are several doctors, and each doctor has a car:




  • The doctors' cars?

  • The cars of the doctors?


Answer



"Three types of phone" ("Three phone types" is also grammatically correct, but less usual).




"The doctors' cars" ("The cars of the doctors" is also grammatically correct, but clumsy).


I wonder whether the past tense is interchanged with the present tense

The reason I stopped smoking was that all my friends had already stopped smoking.



The reason I stopped smoking is that all my friends had already stopped smoking.



-



I wonder if the verb "was" is replaced for "is", which reflects the present time. I think it's not possible because the time I stopped smoking was the past, and the cause inspiring the determination to stop smoking was also the past thing.



Is it right?

grammatical number - What is the proper plural of the word "freshman"?



Would it be proper to say freshman students, freshmen, or freshmen students?



Edit:




It is worth noting that I have since learned it is more acceptable in educational circles to use the term "first-year students" instead of "freshmen".


Answer



Both "freshmen" and "freshman students" are correct, but "freshmen students" is wrong. I think "freshmen" is the official term.


The definite article usage in a sentence



Please have a look at the sentence below:
This is the popular song of Taylor Swift.




To me, if there isn't any specific song related to that singer known as "popular", the usage of the here is not correct.
The refers to the construct "popular song" here but more to the word "popular". And since apparently there isn't such a specific song known as "popular", we should use an indefinite article: This is a popular song of Taylor Swift.



Using the definite article can be optional in some cases but in this sentence, it's not.



Do you guys agree with me?


Answer



I agree with you (in the absence of additional context) that the sentence should read,





"This is a popular song by Taylor Swift."




However, if one asked, "What are you listening to on your headset?" the answer might be,




"I'm listening to the popular song by Taylor Swift called, 'You Belong With Me.'"




This example confirms your observations of where the definite article could be used appropriately (i. e., in reference to a specific song). However, even in this example, like you, I would still prefer to use the indefinite article:





"I'm listening to a popular song by Taylor Swift called, 'You Belong With Me.'"



punctuation - Quoting a question at the end of a sentence which is itself a question



If my sentence is a question and ends with a quote of a question, where exactly do I put a question mark?






  1. Did she ask, "Is it raining"?


  2. Did she ask, "Is it raining?"?


  3. Did she ask, "Is it raining?"




Answer



The convention here is to write





Did she ask, "Is it raining?"




with the first question mark included and the second omitted.



See for example Jane Straus's Blue book of grammar and punctuation or Larry Trask's Guide to punctuation.


grammar - Can someone please explain the syntactic rules at work here?

I'll use an example statement that's currently being used in a radio commercial for American Family Insurance (paraphrased.)




They all told me that I couldn't build my dream home by myself; but, I didn't.




Can someone please lex this to identify why but, I didn't is referring to the fact that the dream home was built and it was not build by myself; whereas and, I didn't would introduce ambiguity as to whether the dream home was built or not; or that it was built but not by myself.



To state my question another way: if I were to attempt to automate a lexical analysis of this statement -exactly as it has been provided- to conclude that the house was built with the help of others, what rules would I need to consider?




Apart from bare assertions that the sentence parses a different way, can anyone see any alternative interpretations?



[Edit]



I see the but as an adverbial conjunction and that's why my parsing is conflicting with that of others who are seeing it as a coordinating conjunction.




They all told me that I couldn't build my dream home by myself, only I didn't.





With this understanding, it is clear to see that this is the structure they are using. The question now is...is that the proper structure of an adverbial but? It feels natural to me, but by the responses below, others seem to disagree.

Sunday, June 22, 2014

Is there any particular rule for specific colours in adjective order?



I read here that there is a general rule to write an adjective order. But I didn't find any explanation if the rule has a specific order for colours, especially for primary colours.



This may sound stupid but I'm just wondering. I mean is it preferable to say:





red and white flowers




Or:




white and red flowers




Or is there really no grammatical rule to obey?



Answer




I mean is it preferable to say:



red and white flowers Or:



white and red flowers




Or is there really no grammatical rule to obey?




No, there is no rule, you can use any order you like:



"There were white, red, purple and pale-blue flowers on the table" is correct with any permutations of the colours


Saturday, June 21, 2014

Using 'the' in front of proper nouns?

This may be an incredibly stupid question but I'm having a bit of trouble with it.




If I want to write:




I transferred flights at the airport.




Then I know I need to use 'at the' as 'airport' is a noun.



but what if I want to specify the airport to be Sydney Domestic Airport?




I'm of (the perhaps wrong?) belief that 'Sydney Domestic Airport' is a proper noun and so you shouldn't need the preceding 'the'? But reading it out loud either way seems correct.



So what fundamental rule am I obviously forgetting from primary school? Go easy on me!

negation - What are the differences between "seems not" and "doesn't seem"?



Are the following sentences correct?





He seems not to want to help us




and




He seems want to help us.




Is it correct if I use "seem" in a negative sentence? Which role does "seem" play?




Is there any difference in meaning between:




  • It seems not working for me.

  • It doesn't seem work for me.

  • It seems not to be working.



Please tell me the differences between the three of them and in which situation I can use them.



Answer



I don't think they are correct, close and understandable but not how a native English speaker would say it, I would say




  • "He seems to not want us to help" and

  • "He seems to want us to help"



negative questions are usually confusing so I'm not sure I can help you there.





  • "It seems to not be working for me"

  • "It doesn't seem to work for me" would be the same meaning.

  • "It seems to not be working" would also be the same though applied to 'it' not just you working 'it'.



I think the difference is perhaps when spoken rather than written sometimes people miss/slur ot half say things as there is a lot more context.


meaning - Word or phrase for the moment/reason/motive you reveal to someone why you had acted a certain way prior to parting ways

A massive cliche in action movies (especially James Bond), but is there actually a word for that moment when the evil villain reveals their deadly plot to the action hero before (usually attempting and failing at) killing them?



If there is no word for this, is there a phrase for the "reason that this was done" i.e. if you asked the villain why they did it (apart from probably for personal satisfaction).



In a similar (but un-deadly scenario), is there a word/phrase/motive for the reason someone might feel like they wanted to tell someone (they wouldn't see again) why they had acted in a certain way prior to the final parting (i.e. telling them about past events during their final encounter)? e.g. "I acted like that because I really liked you and what you did made me feel bad at the time, and I felt like I needed to tell you because..." (is this even a good idea haha)

Friday, June 20, 2014

tenses - A conditional sentence with present perfect

Is it correct to say:





If you have finished it by then, I'll come and take it.




thus using the present perfect in the "if" clause to mean the future instead of the present?

phrases - "List of tasks" or "tasks' list"




Which of these forms is better: list of tasks or tasks' list? Another question is whether I should use an apostrophe or not (tasks's list vs tasks list).



Other phrases which are similar to this, but aren't quite what I'm looking for, are list of projects and task's action (one task this time).



Maybe the answer is obvious, but English is not my native language so I need to understand it.


Answer



The usual phrase is "task list" (without plural or apostrophe).



"List of tasks" is perfectly acceptable, and perhaps preferable in general writing; but in referring to a list (almost like a name for it) "task list" is overwhelmingly the common expression.




"Tasks' list" would be very unusual: the possessive 's and its variants are usually used only for real possession, not for more general relationships; and tend not to be used for abstract nouns, though this is not a firm prohibition.


nouns - time-sensitive documents, goods, articles or cargo


time-sensitive documents, goods, articles or cargo





In the phrase reproduced above, does it mean that only documents are time-sensitive or does time-sensitive apply to goods, articles and cargo as well?

word choice - Functionality vs. Functionalities: are both correct and idiomatic?



To me, inasmuch as use of the word functionality referring to software means the extent of its overall ability, I would write "The software implements the following functionality." However, I've seen (from my Indian counterparts), "The software implements the following functionalities." To me, this just sounds awkward and wrong. In fact, as I just typed functionalities, the text box editor underlines it in red. And yet, I read all over the internet that the plural of functionality is functionalities so I don't know why it should be flagged. However, I guess that's not my question. My question is as in the title; are both examples above correct inasmuch as the software quite obviously will implement more than one piece of functionality?



Edit

Based on the comments below, let me rephrase my titular question. Are both examples above correct English? If so, do they both convey the same message? The way I'm employing functionality only feels plural, but that wasn't the essence of my question.



Edit 2
It looks like someone edited my titular question which is good because the focus below became too much on pluralization vs. idiomatic correctness. It appears that both uses are idiomatically correct. However, within the "anglosphere", as Dan calls it, functionality is most commonly (and properly) used as a mass noun. From the Meriam Webster's Online Dictionary referenced below, functionality is defined as: "the particular use or set of uses for which something is designed".


Answer



Google defines functionality as the range of operations that can be run on a computer or other electronic system, so we would expect either "functions" or "functionality." The arguable exception would be if we were referring to multiple systems, each with a different functionality.


Thursday, June 19, 2014

Why is the plural pronoun **them** used here?

Look at the following sentence that I just saw while viewing a profile:




Apparently, this user prefers to keep an air of mystery about them.


As it looks, them refers to this user, right?
This user refers to one person; however, the pronoun them is used which refers to many people and seems incompatible.



Can somebody explain why this sentence is right and why him/her aren't used?

syntactic analysis - Possessive-gerund/ sentence structure



Here's an alternative/clearer version of my original question:



Consider the following sentence:




Instead of his being stationed on a plank, I want him on a pedestal.





This shows the possessive gerund. However, the "I want him..." being juxtaposed with "his being..." seems awkward (as was pointed out in the ensuing comment section).



It is the stationing that I want to discuss. So, to make it less awkward, instead of using "him" for the subject, since we are using "being stationed" as a noun in the first part, can we use a pronoun for it in the second part?



In other words, can I make the sentence




Instead of his being stationed on a plank, I want [his being stationed] on a pedestal.





where the [text] is replaced by a pronoun (and appropriate grammatical changes).



Is an alternative path better (and what)?



ORIGINAL:



I was writing a question in a different site and had a doubt about my sentence structure. This is what I typed:





instead of its being defined on an interval [maths], its definition is on an interval [maths]




The first part of the sentence shows the possessive-gerund. I was wondering if I could restructure this sentence as




instead of its being defined on an interval [maths], I want it on an interval [maths]/it is on an interval [maths]




where it refers to the "being-defined"-ness? The reason behind my asking this question is that the reason we use the possessive form is because we are discussing the particular characteristic ("being-defined"-ness) of the subject under scrutiny, so in the next part of the sentence, can we use it to refer to the characteristic without ambiguity? Or can it be confused for the subject? Or does using it make sense only when it is referring to the subject (which makes the most sense to me).




To be honest, using "its definition" in the sentence I originally typed also sounds a little weird to me (I was going to put in "I want it to be defined on..." instead), but I do think that it grammatically agrees with "its being defined".



Ultimately, what I am asking is if "being defined" may be used exactly as a noun might. Because the second sentence certainly makes perfect sense if I had used "definition" instead of "being defined" (with the necessary grammatical changes).


Answer



A sentence can sometimes be made to stand in the position of a noun phrase (NP) by nominalizing it. There are two nominalized sentences in your example:



Instead of his being stationed on a plank, I want him on a pedestal.



"his being stationed on a plank" is a POSS-ing nominalization of "He is stationed on a plank", and the nominalization is object of the preposition "instead of". "him on a pedestal" is probably a FOR-TO nominalization of "he is on a pedestal" (a more regular form would be ?"for him to be on a pedestal"), and the nominalization is object of the verb "want".



The English nominalization system is quite disorderly. A general feature of it is that the particular form of nominalization used depends on the function of the nominalization in the larger construction. In the example, if we were to use a POSS-ing nominalization after "want", we'd get the ungrammatical *"I want his being on a pedestal". Why? It's just an idiosyncrasy of "want" that it does not allow a following POSS-ing nominalization. Compare the verb "like" which tolerates both kinds of nominalization:



I like him on a pedestal.  
I like his being on a pedestal.


Classifying the -ing form of the verb in POSS-ing nominalizations as a gerund is not at all helpful in analyzing them, since this verb form has verbal properties and no nominal properties whatsoever within the sentence that has been nominalized.


word order - Ordering prepositional phrases

I have rewritten a sentence like the one below several times, and I could not seem to put the prepositional phrases in an order that sounded correct to me. Is there a better way to construct this particular sentence? Are there any solid rules for ordering several prepositional phrases?




I have an interview on Friday with Joe Smith at ACME Inc for an Editor
II position.


grammatical number - Use of lone apostrophe for plural?

I've been reading William Manchester's book "American Caesar", which is about Douglas MacArthur, and I found that he uses a strange convention for pluralizing the family name. When talking about the MacArthurs as a whole, he writes MacArthur' with an apostrophe, as in "After the war, the MacArthur' lived in Tokyo while the general was proconsul" (yes, he uses that term to describe him).



I have never seen or heard of a rule that would prescribe this. Manchester is a bit old-timey in his style: for example, he also writes "in behalf of" instead of "on behalf of", which is the only one I have ever seen. So perhaps this is similar. Where does he get this apostrophe from?



Edit: There seems to be some difficulty finding examples, which is odd. Here is a direct link to a page from Google Books that shows the apostrophe.

Wednesday, June 18, 2014

punctuation - Should I use adjacent parentheses or a semicolon (or something else)?




In scientific writing it is common to use parentheses to refer to the details of statistical analyses at the end of a sentence. However, it is also common to refer to figures or tables this way. Often I find that the same sentence requires both a reference to statistical details and a figure (example below). Should I use adjacent parenthetical references or separate the statistical information from the figure reference with a semicolon?




Treatment A contained significantly greater mass than treatment B (p = 0.001)(Figure 1).




OR




Treatment A contained significantly greater mass than treatment B (p = 0.001; Figure 1).




Answer



Don't write pairs of parentheses back to back (don't do it)(no, really!). Either you can put on of the two items in the main text:




Treatment A contained significantly greater mass than treatment B (p = 0.001), as show on Figure 1.




or use the semicolon, as you proposed:





Treatment A contained significantly greater mass than treatment B (p = 0.001; Figure 1).



punctuation - Should I use a comma before "and" or "or"?



Is using a comma then an "and" or an "or" after it proper punctuation?

Example:





  • I fell over, and hurt my knee.

  • Should I go, or not?



Answer



Whether it is correct to use a comma before a coordinating conjunction ("and", "but", "or", "nor", "for", "yet", "so") depends on the situation. There are three primary uses of conjunctions:





  1. When a coordinating conjunction is used to connect two independent clauses, a comma is always used. Examples:




    • I hit my brother with a stick, and he cried.

    • The rain stopped, and the sun came out again.

    • Should I eat dinner, or should I play a game?


  2. When a coordinating conjunction is used to connect a dependent clause, a comma is never used. This includes both of your given examples. Other examples:





    • The boy ran to his room and cried.

    • Frank is a healthy and active child.

    • Should I eat dinner or play a game?


  3. When a coordinating conjunction is used to connect three or more items or clauses, a comma is optional (though I personally prefer to use one). Examples:




    • I bought cheese, crackers, and drinks at the store.


    • Should I eat dinner, play a game, or go to the store?



compounds - Is it timespan or time span?



I'm speaking of the noun having to do with an interval of time.



I need this for programming purposes and it appears some people use "time span" and others "timespan" so I assume both are correct.


Answer



Merriam-Webster doesn't have an entry for timespan. Time span is correct, as you are referring to a span of time. I could see the argument for both being correct, though, as many other "Y of X" are converted into single word XY in english.




For programmers, timespan is used because spaces are not allowed in many places. If you are speaking to programers, timespan will be understood.


Tuesday, June 17, 2014

british english - Pronunciation of "lorry", "worry" and "sorry"




I have always pronounced lorry as "lur-ee" (as if to rhyme with worry), for as long as I can remember. Everyone else I know pronounces it as "lor-ee" (as if to rhyme with sorry).



Which one is correct, and why would the pronunciation of the vowel differ between sorry and worry when their spellings differ only in a consonant?


Answer



I don't do "correct", but I've never heard anybody pronounce "lorry" to rhyme with "worry".



I believe that the difference is because of the lip-rounding of the /w/. Many words starting with "w", "wh", "sw", "qu" or "squ" have different vowel sounds from similar words with a different consonant.



Eg





  • watch, what vs patch, thatch, pat, that

  • war, warm, swarm vs far, farm

  • worth, worm vs forth, form



(There are exceptions to this rule).


Sunday, June 15, 2014

verbs - What's up with the -es/-eth inconsistency in "O the Deep, Deep Love of Jesus"?



This hymn was written more than a century ago, back when more people were aware of how Early Modern English arranged its conjugations. But in the second verse, there appears to be an inconsistency between two otherwise identical instances of "watch" — tense, person, meter, and so on are all the same.




O the deep, deep love of Jesus,
Spread His praise from shore to shore!
How He loveth, ever loveth,
Changeth never, nevermore;
How He watches o’er His loved ones,
Died to call them all His own;
How for them He intercedeth,
Watcheth o’er them from the throne.




Mostly this is using -eth, including the last occurrence of "watch", as one would expect. But the one in the middle is really strange. It's not an accident either; the version with -eth corrected is an order of magnitude less common than the one I quoted. Is there some hidden meaning to this difference?


Answer




According to the Wikipedia article on "O the Deep, Deep Love of Jesus," Samuel Trevor Francis wrote the lyrics to the hymn in 1875, which was subsequently set to the Welsh melody "Ebenezer" by Thomas John Williams. Google Books finds a 1926 edition of Francis's O the Deep, Deep Love of Jesus: And Other Sacred Poems (1926), but doesn't provide a preview or a snippet view of the contents of the volume, so we can't see how Francis himself worded the lyrics.



The earliest version of the hymn that I've been able to find is from Charles Alexander, Victorious Life Hymns (1919), which offers this version of the second verse of the lyrics:




O the deep, deep love of Jesus,



Spread His praise from shore to shore;



How He loveth, ever loveth,




Changeth never, never more;



How He watches o'er His loved ones,



Died to call them all His own;



How for them He intercedeth,



Watcheth o'er them from the throne.





Clearly, the conflict in this verse isn't merely watches versus watcheth three lines later, but watches versus loveth, loveth, changeth, intercedeth, and watcheth in the five lines surrounding it.



The remainder of the song verbeth not in the archaic style. Nevertheless, the first verse includes this specimen of third-person present singular usage:




Underneath me, all around me,



Is the current of Thy love;





and the third verse is rife with relevant instances:




O the deep, deep love of Jesus,



Love of ev'ry love the best:



'Tis an ocean vast of blessing,




'Tis a haven sweet of rest.



O the deep, deep love of Jesus,



'Tis a Heav'n of heav'ns to me;



And it lifts me up to glory,



For it lifts me up to Thee.





From these instances, it appears that Jesus in person loveth, changeth never, intercedeth, and watcheth, whereas the current of Jesus's deep, deep love is (not be) all around, and the deep, deep love itself is an ocean, is a haven, is a heaven, and lifts the singer up to glory (and to Jesus).



On this record, it seems clear that only Jesus in person jusitifieth and deserveth the regal archaiasm of an -eth verb ending; his deep love more pedestrianly merits and receives the plain third-person present form. But that being the case, it is almost impossible to see the phrase "How He watches" amidst the antient dignitie of loveth, changeth, &c., and not conclude that someone—either Francis himself or the publisher of the conjoined music and words—hath blown it. There is not a scintilla of difference in functional meaning between watches and watcheth as used in this hymn.



The more specific circumstances surrounding the occurrences of watches and watcheth here bolster this conclusion. Perhaps most significantly, both verbs are followed by o'er, so it can hardly be argued that watcheth was too difficult to enunciate in the first instance but not in the second.



As scored in Alexander's hymn book, watches sounds as two quarter notes (A–A or C–C or both), while watcheth sounds as either two quarter notes (F–F) or as a quarter note and an eighth-note triplet (D–C-D-E). Either way, I don't see ease of pronunciation as being relevant to the choice of watches in the first instance.




I do see a possibility that because watches appears on a line with no -eth verb close by (changeth is six words away in one direction, and intercedeth 16 words away in the other), a careless author or transcriber might not have noticed the switch in diction at that point. In contrast, it would take a very poor author or transcriber indeed to miss the fact that watcheth appears immediately after intercedeth: even if the sense of the -eth forms were half-foreign to your ears, you could hardly let "He intercedeth, watches o'er them" slide.



A Hathi Trust search yields a copy of S. Trevor Francis, Whence-Whither an Other Poems (1898), which contains the poem "Love of Jesus." This edition came out 23 years after Francis first published the poem but 27 years before he died. Unlike the three-stanza hymn cited above, the poem runs an heroic eight stanzas and attaches two additional verbs directly to Jesus:




Yet He calleth me "His own";




and





When the Royal, Kingly Bridegroom



Hath His stately spotless Bride;




So it begins to look as though the fault is not in Francis's posterity but in himself. In any event, a number of subsequent printings of the lyrics have changed the watches to watcheth, by way of regularizing the diction. In doing so, they have logic and consistency on their side. Those who persist in watches have more than a century of precedent on their side—and not much else.


punctuation - Comma or no comma before the word "and"

I'm curious about whether to use comma before "and". Some people told me that using comma to connect two different sentences and two different subjects.




Please provide some examples to explain the usage of this. Thanks a lot!

Saturday, June 14, 2014

grammar - How do noun clauses work when they seem to leave no independent clause?



Another thing that was raised in conversation with my ESL friend is noun clauses.



I was aware of Adverbial and Adjectival Clauses and thought that the things he was demonstrating to me were in fact noun phrases, not clauses.




After a long discussion and some google searches, I had to concede that he was right to call them Noun Clauses, according to the entire internet. However, I can't seem to find anywhere a satisfying explanation for the fact that noun clauses often leave a sentence without an independent clause. For example:




He only gave me what he already owed me.




Here, as I am led to believe, "what he already owed me" is a Noun Clause. In my understanding, this means that "He only gave me" would be the other clause that makes this a sentence. The problem in my eyes is that neither of these clauses could stand alone.



Somebody please explain how this sentence with two subordinate clauses can exist, or else tell me why I am wrong.


Answer




The sentence you gave does not consist of two subordinate clauses. It contains one independent clause, and one subordinate clause. The internal structure of the sentence goes like this:



[He only gave me [what he owed me.]]


The outer pair of brackets encloses the entire sentence, which is the independent clause. The inner pair of brackets indicates the inner clause. Clauses which are contained within other clauses are known as dependent clauses, and this particular one is a nominal relative clause. It is a relative clause because it begins with the relative pronoun what, and it is a nominal clause (or noun clause) because it functions as a noun within the sentence.



Your intuition is mostly correct, but you've misunderstood where to put the clause boundaries. You seem to have been misled by the false assumption that a clause must be a complete sentence, and the idea that a clause cannot contain another clause. In this case the dependent clause what he owed me is incomplete because relative clauses have to be embedded in a larger context to have meaning, which is why they're called "dependent". And the fragment He only gave me is not even a full clause, because it lacks the direct object that's required by the verb gave. It only becomes a clause when you include the noun clause that acts as its object.



EDIT:




There seems to be some confusion about whether a dependent clause goes inside or outside of the independent clause. Let's look at this deductively, beginning with a simple sentence.



(Abbreviations: [] = clause boundaries, {} = phrase boundaries, IO = indirect object, DO = direct object)



[He gave IO{me} DO{ten dollars}].


In this case, I hope that there is no doubt that the indirect object and the direct object go inside the clause that contains them. The independent clause is not just the subject and the verb, but the subject, the verb, and all of the objects of the verb.




The important thing to remember about noun clauses (and other kinds of subordinate clauses) is that the structure of the independent clause does not change when you insert a noun clause. So in the original example we have something like this:



[He gave IO{me} DO[what he owed me]].


The noun clause what he owed me is the direct object of the verb gave, and it replaces the noun phrase ten dollars. But this has no effect at all on the structure of the independent clause. You can do the same thing with the indirect object:



[He gave IO[whoever he had borrowed from] DO[what he owed them]].



You could go even further with this, adding more nested dependent clauses inside dependent clauses, doing this forever in theory. (In practice it becomes extremely hard to understand after you've nested your clauses more than two or three layers.) But no matter how deep your nesting goes or how complicated the dependent clause becomes, it's still a single component in the structure of the higher-level clause. Dependent clauses do not magically move outside the structure of their parent clauses, nor do they change the grammatical analysis of the clauses that contain them.


grammatical number - Which is correct: The rest of the staff is or are? The rest of my family is or are?

I hope you can enlighten me. I get varying answers in Google and I need to find out which is the correct grammatical structure for these sentences.





The rest of the staff is/are on leave at the moment.



The rest of my family is/are arriving late.


capitalization - Capital letter in the word "one"?

Suppose I have a headline for a subsection of a book or article that goes something like: Everything Collected in One Place.



Is this correct or should it be: Everything Collected in one Place. ?

american english - He may be wondering

Suppose i gave a gift to my friend and im talking to myself in my mind



He may be wondering what is in it.




is this correct way of saying or i should say



1.He may be wondering what will/(would) be in it.



2.He might be wondering wha would be in it.

hyphenation - How do I hyphenate an open-form compound word with another that should be hyphenated?




I'm confused about how to combine an open-form compound word with a word that would normally be hyphenated. There's excellent guidance for making the open vs. closed vs. hyphenated decision, but I don't see how to apply this when hyphenating the open-form word looks wrong.



For example, make a compound word out of North, America, and based. North America is open formed and something-based is hyphenated. Is Coca-Cola a...




North America-based company: this seems very wrong as it de-emphasizes North America as a proper-noun place and makes it sound like the company is based in the North part of America (which is neither accurate nor the intent of the phrase).



North America based company: feels jolting to read and omits what seems like a necessary hyphen before "based"




North-America-based company: looks best(?), but has hyphenated the open-formed compound "North America", which unlike "well-thought-out plan" still seems wrong, despite the guidance at the linked answer above regarding phrasal adjectives*.




* the aforelinked answer says every word is hyphenated in phrasal adjectives , but for some open-form words this looks wrong



Note: I think my question could be improved with an example that looks even more egregious, but I can't think of one.


Answer



The Chicago Manual prefers a spare hyphenation style; their guideline is "hyphenate only if doing so will aid readability". So Chicago would recommend North America based.



When I look up based in Wordnik, all of their examples where based is preceded by a proper name use the hyphen, e.g., U.S.-based, N.Y.-based, and so North America-based by extension.




However, I would share your reservations about joining America to based, and would use North America based.



The Chicago Manual notes:




Far and away the most common spelling questions for writers and
editors concern compound terms—whether to spell as two words,
hyphenate, or close up as a single word.





To aid your decision, they offer this handy table.


Thursday, June 12, 2014

verbs - Figuring the SVO of the sentence "I'm Tom."



I was under the impression that every sentence has a subject–verb–object (SVO) where S and V are compulsory and O is optional.



So basically I was wondering in the sentence "I'm Tom." is the subject "I" and the verb "am" ? But what about the "Tom" ? It simply can't be an object right?


Answer



Not every sentence is SVO. SVO refers to the general pattern of those primary constituents for English and a variety of other languages when discussing language typology. It's not a language requirement.



Intransitive verbs in English, for example, don't need an object. In fact, they can't take an object:





  • He died, for example, doesn't have an object.

  • *He died poison, is not grammatical.



be (the copula) is a strange verb in most languages. Some would analyse simple sentences such as I am Tom as stative passive, with Tom being the complement of I.


grammaticality - A list of something

When I write a list of something. What are the following correct in American style.



A, B, and C.




A, B and C.

grammar - "Set of techniques"; singular or plural?

I have an English course book that contains this question:



Fill in the blank
"The book is a set of techniques that systematically __ the learner for interaction with target language speakers".
(A) prepare (B) preparing (C) prepares (D) prepared."



The answer given in the book is A, but isn't C correct?
I used Google and found this example "DNA technology is a powerful set of techniques that ALLOWS scientists to examine, change, and create new genetic material"

word choice - "Gassy emissions from these giant dinosaurs" vs. "... by these giant dinosaurs"



Reading a science article on Huffington Post, titled "Dinosaur Farts, Prehistoric Climate Change Linked In New Methane Gas Study", I came across the following sentence:





The gassy emissions from these giant dinosaurs may have been enough to warm the Earth, the researchers say.




I'm wondering, if the farts are produced and emitted by dinosaurs, is it proper English using 'from' instead of 'by' in that sentence?


Answer





  • The gassy emissions from these giant dinosaurs may have been enough to warm the Earth, the researchers say.





From:



The preposition from, which is modifying the noun emissions in the Original Poster's example, indicates the source, or origin of the noun. It is a very common usage of this preposition and is frequently observed. Consider the following examples:




  • wines from France

  • shouts of abuse from the audience

  • posts from users

  • letters from friends


  • excerpts from the novel

  • strange noises from the fridge



Here, the source of the wine is France, the abuse originates from the audience, so on and so forth. The gassy emissions, or farts as the Original Poster colloquially and accurately terms them, originated from the dinosaurs in question and so from the dinosaurs is a perfectly valid prepositional phrase with which to modify the Noun Phrase The emissions.



By:



The Original Poster's question, however, also considers modification of The emissions by a prepositional phrase headed by the preposition by. Now, it is a pernicious myth peddled by English teachers and armchair grammarians, that verbs denote actions, nouns denote objects, adjectives describe nouns or objects, so on and so forth. In actual fact, of course, verbs often denote states, not actions; nouns can denote actions and not objects, adjectives can be used to describe states or actions and not objects - you get the picture.




For our purposes here, we need to consider nouns that describe actions and events. There are thousands if not tens of thousands of such words. Here are a few:




  • theft, release, beating, baptism, massacre, emission



Now when we consider actions or events such as these, we are often able to perceive entities whom or which we consider to take the role of agent or patient in relation to the action concerned. The agent is the doer of the action, and the patient is the recipient of the action, the thing the action is done to. In the sentence, Bob punched me, therefore, Bob is the agent and I am the patient - the person who received the punch.



In relation to actions denoted by nouns, when we perceive both an agent and a patient, we commonly use by to modify the noun to show the agent, and we can also use of to show the patient:





  • the massacre of the Daleks by the Vogons

  • the baptism by the priests of the new members of the congregation

  • the release of the baboons by the naturalists

  • the theft by the cat burglar of the Crown Jewels

  • the emission of green house gasses by the diplodocus



[Note that if the action is perceived as intransitive, then this pattern won't usually apply. We will use of to denote the agent. Consider: the arrival of the bus, the resignation of the managing director, the refusal of the authorities to...]




In the Original Poster's question, their alternative formulation emissions by dinosaurs would indicate the agent of the emitting action. It is of course perfectly grammatical and stylistically viable.



Conclusion:



In terms of the structure of the Noun Phrase the emissions ..., both the Preposition Phrases from dinosaurs and by dinosaurs function as modifiers or adjuncts. They are not essential elements in the structure of the phrase. We could add either, or omit both, and the Noun Phrase would still be well-formed. In this particular instance, the two Preposition Phrases provide pretty much the same information, so little would be gained by using them both. The second would seem redundant if we did so:




  • The emissions from and by dinosaurs may ...




In terms of which is stylistically best, in general terms they both seem fine. They're certainly both grammatically well-formed. However, the writer here seems to be trying to add a bit of colour to what might otherwise be a rather dry subject. They, for example, use the term gassy emissions, they don't say the methane released. The effect of emissions here is slightly comical, it mirrors the use of emissions we often see in the literature relating to factories and power stations, but also, because of the action-like nature of the noun, it clearly reminds us of farting. It therefore introduces a trace of very understated scatological humour in order to enliven the subject matter.



For these reasons, it seems to me that the faintly scatalogical undertone would be enhanced by the use of by, because it would increase the sense of the dinosaurs' agency in the farting process. Compare:





  • Gassy emissions from dinosaurs


  • Gassy emissions by dinosaurs






However, the last stylistic point is a matter of personal opinion. It only indirectly relates to the grammar. The upshot of this enquiry overall is that both from and by dinosaurs are perfectly grammatically correct.



Hope this helps