I just read an article on Newyork times and I found a sentence having 2 present perfect verbs :
After more than a year of speculation, Mr. Draghi, the never-predictable head of the European Central Bank, has given global investors what they have clamored for, with an extra twist: an open-ended commitment to buy eurozone government bonds in bulk.
The first verb "has given" is used because the action happened in the past but has results in the present which is an open ended commitment
The second one " have clamored" is used because they clamored several time in the past up to the present
Am I right? if no, can anyone give a correct answer?
Thank you
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