Tuesday, July 31, 2012

word choice - If you can't use “he”, “she” or “they” in a sentence, what do you use?

I was waiting for a plane to take off last week, when we had to taxi back to the terminal building to disembark a sick passenger. We weren't told whether the passenger was male or female.




I was thinking about how to tell people about it, but realised I couldn't say that 'He' or 'She' disembarked, because I didn't know the sex. I couldn't say 'They' because I knew there was only one and I couldn't say 'It', because it wasn't an object. Without saying 'The sick passenger' disembarked, what word could I use?

tenses - Reported Speech with was and were

I set a test with the following direct sentence, which the students were supposed to put into reported speech: Interviewer: "Are you fluent in English?"
I expected the students to write: The interviewer asked me if I was fluent in English.
However, some students wrote: The interviewer asked me if I were fluent in English.



I know that "was" and "were" are sometimes both possible, like: If I was/were rich...
But to my knowledge this is used in unreal situations. Is it correct to say:
The interviewer asked me if I were fluent in English?

phrasal verbs - What is the difference between "Come on home" and "Come home"?

What is the difference between "Come on home" and "Come home"? In this case "Come on" is a phrasal verb?

Monday, July 30, 2012

grammaticality - Is "I am who(m) God made me" grammatical?

SAH asked an interesting question about case, I am [who/whom] G-d made me, but one issue that came up in the comments repeatedly is that many people said that they find the example sentence unacceptable with either pronoun.



This suggests that the sentence could be ungrammatical, but I'm having trouble figuring out why it would be. It is possible in general for the verb "make" to take a direct object and an object complement. The object complement can be an adjective, as in "They made me unhappy", or a noun phrase, as in "It made me a believer". We can say "It made me who I am", and things like "Your personality is what makes you you" or "These are the things that made me, me" (people seem to vary in how they punctuate sentences like these, but it's not that hard to find examples).



One thing I considered was that maybe it is grammatical, but hard to parse because it is a kind of "garden path sentence": many of the commenters expressed the idea that having both "who(m)" and "me" is redundant, which to me seems like a misunderstanding of the syntax of the sentence.



For example, Mitch said:






  • The relative pronoun should replace the subject or object in the relative clause but both are still there. It would be "I am who/whom G-d made" or "I am who made me".(who or whom both work; whom is hardly used at all in normal speech nowadays, but religious speech holds on to some archaism me like 'whom'.



    [...] "X is who Y made Z" not grammatical. "Adjective is how Y made Z" grammatical (from "Y made Z Adjective") "X is who/whom Y loves" (from "Y loves X")





If the sentence is actually ungrammatical, and not just difficult to parse, it would seem to indicate some restriction on the ability of who or whom in this position to correspond to anything but a subject or direct object. I wonder if this is related to the dubious acceptability of "who(m)" in contexts like "the girl whom I gave the ring" (where many speakers feel a "to" has to be added to complete the sentence).



Surprisingly to me, it seems like there may be a difference between the animate wh-pronoun who(m) and the inanimate wh-pronoun what, since I received comments suggesting that similar sentences with what do sound acceptable to Araucaria and Mitch:






  • "What they named Christopher was the boy" doesn't seem to bear a good relation to the original, it seems to me . "What they named the boy was Christopher" seems ok to me ... (but grammaticality is in the ear of the beholder, no doubt!) – Araucaria




  • "What they named the boy was Christopher." sounds fine to me. Also "Christopher was what they named the boy" is fine too. – Mitch






In "Christopher was what they named the boy", the word "what" doesn't seem to be either a subject or a direct object, but nevertheless the sentence appears to be grammatical. So what's the relevant difference between this sentence and "I am who(m) G-d made me"?



I'm interested in knowing if there are any grammatical theories that explain why who(m) would be ungrammatical in this context, but any evidence (in addition to the already-established unacceptability judgements of a fair number of commenters here) that you can provide showing that the sentence with who(m) is ungrammatical would suffice as an answer to this question. (Or if you can show that the sentence is grammatical, that would also make a great answer!)

meaning - "Needs to be repaired" vs. "needs repairing"

Is there any difference in meaning between the following two sentences?





  1. My car needs to be repaired.

  2. My car needs reparing.


Sunday, July 29, 2012

grammaticality - Correctness of "of my sending the picture"

Is this sentence correct?





I don’t think Linda would have approved of my sending the picture; but I did it anyway.




Specifically, is of my sending the picture correct?

grammatical number - Is "everyone" singular or plural?




Which is correct?




Everyone were convinced that he would go to the game.
Everyone was convinced that he would go to the game.




I think it's "was", because "everyone" is singular, but I just wanted to check.


Answer



Everyone agrees that everyone is singular and therefore singular verb forms agree with everyone.



grammaticality - Collective nouns treated as singular and plural in the same sentence

I have a problem with a sentence in a news announcement I'm writing. This is the sentence:



1) Company X is expanding and hires Person Y as their new CEO.




I've previously understood that it is correct to treat collective nouns, the company in this case, as singular or plural depending on if one refers to "the company itself" or "the people in the company". In this case, I'm referring to both (the company in itself is expanding, but the people are hiring someone as their new CEO). As such, the number of the pronoun does not agree with the number of the verb.



Two other possible versions that don't sound as right as the above are:



2) Company X is expanding and hire Person Y as their new CEO.



3) Company X is expanding and hires Person Y as its new CEO.



Which one is correct / do you prefer?

politeness - Polite way to refuse to answer a question

It sometimes happens that I am asked a question which I am uncomfortable answering for a variety of reasons (it invades my privacy, the answer may hurt the person asking, it is painful for me to discuss, it would violate a confidence etc.). I may also not feel comfortable explaining why I don't want to answer.



I remember a colleague of mine introducing me to the Far Eastern concept of Mu (sometimes translated as "unask the question"), which seems to quite aptly capture what I'm looking for.



What is the most polite way of expressing this in English?

word choice - How exactly does one determine when to use I or Me?










I got into a good argument with myself when a Lecturer asked:





"Who said that?"




and I replied




"I."





Actually, I didn't just want to stop there, but I felt there was no need to continue and that it was correct. However some argued that "Me" was the correct reply.



Since the reply was not a sentence, it was difficult for me to conclude whether I should refer to an objective Me or a subjective I.



So in short, I want to know whether there is any other clear parameters that defines when to use which and how?


Answer



Either works fine in this case, although me is better. The person who responds with I is actually saying I did but holding back the did. The person who responds with me is simply using the customary emphatic form.



But yes, certainly I is for subject forms and me for object forms. There are just a few situations where what appears to be an object form (but isn’t), are called for, such as “Me, I wouldn’t say it works that way.”




Note that French works the same way in this regard, whereas Spanish does not.


Saturday, July 28, 2012

word choice - When to use "If I was" vs. "If I were"?




  1. If I was...

  2. If I were...




When is it correct to use "If I was" vs. "If I were" in standard English?


Answer



SYNOPSIS: Sometimes it must be “if I was”, but at other times it can be “if I were” — and for some speakers in those cases, perhaps even must be “if I were” in their idiolect.






Sentences with the subordinating conjunction if normally contain two
clauses, each with its own subject and verb. The question asks what to do
about the past-tense be verb in the “if” clause.




Unfortunately, as it’s currently worded the question can have no answer that is
simultaneously all of short, complete, and correct. That’s because it doesn’t
provide enough context to know which one of many possible cases actually
applies here. I must therefore cover them all.









David Maule in his 1988 EFL paper titled ‘Sorry, if he comes, I go’: teaching
conditionals

suggested that English conditionals be broadly classified as one of four
types depending on whether their outcomes were real vs. unreal and
past vs. non-past. (Maule classifies these
based on their “then” part not on their “if” part, and as we shall see,
this is a useful way to organize them.)




  • Class A: real non-past


  • Class B: real past

  • Class C: unreal non-past

  • Class D: unreal past



Maule discovered that most English conditionals do not fit into the
narrow models typically presented to EFL students learning English.



Christian Jones and Daniel Waller built on Maule’s work with their own EFL paper in 2010,
If only it were true: the problem with the four

conditionals
.
The authors sampled a random assortment of conditionals from the British
National Corpus and classified each as being one of Maule’s four categories
listed above. They discovered that the real cases contained patterns in
both the past and the non-past that appeared very frequently in real
English, but which are rarely taught to learners.



The Reals



The class B “real past” cases fit into three patterns:





  1. If + present simple, past continuous

  2. If + present simple, past simple

  3. If + past simple, past simple



Of those three, the final pattern of having past simple in both
clauses was by far the most common of the three. The sample
provided for that case was:





... if you wanted[real] to know the answer ... you had[real] to keep zapping from channel to channel.




Converting that into the first person singular to align with the asker’s question gives us:




If I wanted[real] to know the answer, I had[real] to keep zapping from channel to channel.





And it just one step more to swap out want for be:




If I was[real] interested in knowing the answer, I had[real] to keep zapping from channel to channel.




So here we discover the first of what shall prove to be several answers to
the asker’s question:




You use If I was in the “if” part when the “then” part is in the simple past.



These are always conditionals from Maule’s
class B. It would not be grammatical to use “If I were” there.



These “real past” cases happen all the time in real speech and real
writing, as Jones and Waller prove.



Consider this arrangement:





If she was[real] already home when he got there, then she took[real] the bus.




That’s a real past case on both sides, and it would be ungrammatical to use
“If she were” to attempt to mean the same thing. You can also use a modal perfect in the consequent along with that past simple in the “if” part:




If she was[real] already home when he got there, then she must have taken the bus.




If she was[real] already home when he got there, then she will have taken the bus.




Those are all real cases, and you know by the “then” part.



The Unreals



For Class C, the unreal non-pasts, there are many example patterns
provided, but the most common case by far uses “if” with past simple or
with a modal, then some modal in the consequent.




One provided example there is:




... I’d give it a good hiding if it didn’t behave.




However, there are many other Class C patterns, such as:





... if we could get three or four items, that would be very nice.



... if two members of staff happen to fall in love and decide to marry it would be churlish to be appointing blame.




The thing about using the past simple in something like “If it didn’t” is
that without looking further along in the sentence, this alone is not
enough to reveal whether it’s a Class B type that will take a real
consequent or whether it’s a Class C type that will take an unreal one.




“If only it were true”, “I wish it were true”



Because we use the simple past tense in English for real and unreal conditionals, you normally cannot know whether it’s the unreal case until you hit the “then” portion. But in one unique yet common case, you can, and that is when a singular subject is governing the verb be in the past. That’s because the unreal case uses were no matter whether singular or plural.



So we could say:




If a staff member were to fall in love, it would be churlish to assign blame.





That’s a Class C conditional because the “then” part has a would be in it. But you already knew it was going to be a hypothetical case when you saw the “If a staff member were” in the first half.



Recasting that into the first person singular provides the second answer
to the asker’s question:




If I were to fall in love, it would be churlish to blame me for it.




This special, modally marked form of be is used only for an unreal

hypothetical. It is a relic of the Old English past subjunctive, and it was once used for far more than we use it today.



Here alone can you detect through the morphology of the verb
that it is anything other than the past simple. This is a Class C
conditional because it has an unreal non-past in its consequent: “would be
churlish”



You cannot go wrong by using were for hypotheticals like this, as it has
been the preferred use for centuries, particularly but not exclusively in America. Many careful writers still choose to
observe this distinction: you need but read some recent issue of The Economist magazine from the UK to find plenty of examples of this. Indeed,

English teachers at American schools have been known to mark various hypothetical uses of was as “wrong”, saying that it “should” be were.



Optional were in Class C conditionals



However, you should not flinch if — nay, when — you hear someone say
“If I was... I would...” as a Class C conditional in casual speech. This sometimes happens even in educated
speakers and writers, so you should not make anything of it. Some writers prefer not to do that, but unless the person complaining is your English teacher, you shouldn’t let it get to you. (Yes, this is ungrammatical for some people. For others, it is not.)



It could be that those writers or speakers using “If I was...would” in their conditionals have
chosen not to convey the nuance, or perhaps did not consider

such a distinction meaningful in their own speech. Some are even
unaware that the distinction exists.



Because of the redundancy in language where the would in the “then” part gives it away, it’s not really needed anyway; everyone will still know what you mean.



These forms are still unreal cases even when they aren’t modally marked as unreal, singular were. Because in all cases except for this unique case of was/were you cannot ever morphologically distinguish a real case from an unreal one in English, you have to decide whether it’s unreal by looking at the “then” part, not the “if” part (at least, not reliably).



That means you need to train yourself to tell the real case:





If she was[real] already home when he got there, then she took[real] the bus.




From the unreal case:




If she were[unreal] already home when he got there, he wouldn’t have[unreal] to run pick her up himself.




Even when the unreal case uses the past simple not unreal past in the “if” part the way some speakers do:





If she was[“unreal”] already home when he got there, he wouldn’t have[unreal] to run pick her up himself.




That last example above is real in form but it is still unreal in sense because of the would. Some writers disapprove of that style of using was for a hypothetical, but it’s not uncommon, especially in speech.



Moreover, you cannot somehow make it be “less hypothetical” merely by using “was...would”; that’s just as hypothetical as “were...would” for the reasons already stated.



One final common construction uses past perfect in the “if” part and a modal perfect in the “then” part:





If she had been[unreal] already home when he got there, he wouldn’t have had[unreal] to run pick her up himself.




Although that’s a common way to set up a unreal case with perfects on both sides, there are many other ways, including using a non-perfect unreal past in the “if”:




If she were[unreal] already home when he got there, he wouldn’t have had[unreal] to run pick her up himself.





Yes, it’s somehow “unbalanced” with respect to the perfect aspect, but English doesn’t have an obligatory sequence-of-tenses rule like some languages do, and we often use a simple past instead of a perfect one because it’s...simpler that way.





There is one relatively uncommon place where you pretty much do have to use were not was in a conditional, and that is when you use inversion to forgo the word if altogether:




Were[unreal] there any other way, we would have[unreal] found it.





That’s the same as saying:




If there were[unreal] any other way, we would have[unreal] found it.




or even as saying:





If there had been[unreal] any other way, we would have[unreal] found it.




But that last one lends itself to an inverted version:




Had there been[unreal] any other way, we would have[unreal] found it.




The subject–verb inversion is something of a stealth conditional because it doesn’t use the word if. The inversion alone is enough to signal that it’s what used to be called a “subjunctive” use (back when English had an actual subjunctive). It doesn’t have to use be, but if you do use be for it, you should certainly use were. Other verbs in the past tense work the same, with the inversion signalling the conditional:





Had[unreal] they but asked, we would have[unreal] gladly told them.




You’ll find this “subjunctive inversion” style in formal writing, but very rarely if ever in extemporaneous, casual speaking. That’s because inversion isn’t all that normal, so it’s a marked form. Consider how stiffly formal this Steven Brust quote mentioned in this answer sounds:




To be more precise, and state the matter in its simplest form, we believe that were[unreal] any of the events in the previous volume of such a nature that they could be omitted without severe damage to the narrative, we should have omitted[unreal] them to begin with.




        ― The Lord of Castle Black, by Steven Brust




There instead of writing out the conditional the long way with “if any were”, to be more formal Brust wrote it with inversion: “were any”. (He’s also playing on the modal duality of should, but that’s something else again.)



If you ever get the chance to read English literature from a couple centuries ago or better, you might even come upon conditional inversion used with the bare infinitive in what has historically been called a “present subjunctive” use:




Be ye[unreal] man or mouse, still shall ye say nothing!





That’s using inversion to skip the if, as though it were:




If ye be[unreal] man or mouse, still shall ye say nothing!




Nobody talks that way anymore, and nobody writes that way anymore, either, not unless they intend to represent the speech of centuries long past. Instead we’d just say:





No matter whether you are a man or a mouse, you still will say nothing!







Further Reading



I have related answers here:





Friday, July 27, 2012

grammar - Resolving ambiguity arising from "Change"

"Change" has two definitions that can cause some confusion:
1) Become different. 2) Replace something with a new or different thing. To clarify what I mean, below is an example sentence:




My favourite character changes all the time.




Could potentially be interpreted as either





(1) I discover/find new favourite characters very frequently.



or



(2) My favourite character remains the same, but he/she/it undergoes
constant character development.




So if (1) is what I intend to convey how can I word it differently to remove that ambiguity without being overly verbose or clumsy like (1)?




Please suggest alternative sentences.



One last thing, the sentence below is my own effort at tackling this question. Is it grammatically natural/sound? And does it solely denote (1)?




Who my favourite character is changes all the time.


word choice - "That" versus "which"





In the following sentence, are the words that and which interchangeable? In general, where to put that and where to put which?



The sentence:



At the end of this course, students will be able to






  • Analyze circuits that function as filters.


  • Analyze circuits which function as filters.




Answer



"That" and "which" are never interchangeable! The word "that" is used when the phrase that it starts can not be omitted from a sentence that contains it.



The word "which," which can be very useful, starts a phrase that can be omitted from a sentence without changing its meaning, and is almost always preceded by a comma.




Neither of your examples are complete sentences, but they can be illustrative:



He must analyze the circuits that function as filters.



Means that it is specifically those circuits that function as filters that it is he must analyze.



He must analyze circuits, which function as filters.



Means he will be analyzing circuits, and those circuits also happen to function as filters.



prepositions - What/Which train are you going on/by?




What is the difference between the following interrogative structures?





  • What train are you going on/by?


  • Which train are you going on/by?






And which of the prepositions, given at the end of both structures, would be appropriate?


Answer



Practically speaking, they both mean the same thing. Perhaps if there were a number of trains at a station, someone would say "which" train, but "what" is also acceptable.



In terms of the preposition, I have heard both prepositions used.



Personally, I would say either "Which train are you taking?" or "Which train are you on?"


ellipsis - Why is the subject omitted in sentences like "Thought you'd never ask"?





  • "Thought you'd never ask" is "I thought you'd never ask" with "I" omitted.


  • "Hope this helps" is "I hope this helps" with "I" omitted.




In English grammar, normally every sentence should have a subject, right?



My first thought is that these two examples are so often used that they are like set phrases. But these are not really set phrases. You can alter the words after "thought" and "hope".



Another possible explanation is the tendency to drop the subject if it is the first person pronoun. It seems that in many languages, such as Spanish, Italian and Japanese, the first person subject is usually omitted. Maybe English is going the same way? (Not exactly the same, since in Italian, verb forms change according to the person, so the subject is not necessary to understand who one's referring to.)




And, apparently, such omission is more common in spoken English than in written English.



Are there more examples of such first person subject omission? How frequent is it?


Answer



This is due to a phenomenon that occurs in intimate conversational spoken English called "Conversational Deletion". It was discussed and exemplified quite thoroughly in a 1974 PhD dissertation in linguistics at the University of Michigan that I had the honor of directing.




Thrasher, Randolph H. Jr. 1974. Shouldn't Ignore These Strings: A Study of Conversational Deletion, Ph.D. Dissertation, Linguistics, University of Michigan, Ann Arbor





To quote:





  • (1.16) Gotta go now.

  • (1.17) See you next Tuesday.

  • (1.18) Too bad about old Charlie.

  • (1.19) No need to get upset about it.

  • (1.20) Been in Ann Arbor long?

  • (1.21) Ever get a chance to use your Dogrib?


  • (1.22) Ever get to Japan, look me up.

  • (1.23) Good thing we didn't run into anybody we know.

  • (1.24) Last person I expected to meet was John.

  • (1.25) Wife wants to go to the mountains this year.
    [all from Thrasher 1974 p.5]



"The phenomenon can be viewed as erosion of the beginning of sentences, deleting (some, but not all) articles, dummies, auxiliaries, possessives, conditional if, and [most relevantly for this discussion -jl] subject pronouns. But it only erodes up to a point, and only in some cases.



"Whatever is exposed (in sentence initial position) can be swept away. If erosion of the first element exposes another vulnerable element, this too may be eroded. The process continues until a hard (non-vulnerable) element is encountered." [ibidem p.9]





In general, exposed first-person subjects are vulnerable in statements, and second-person in questions, and any exposed pronoun is vulnerable if it is recoverable from later in the sentence.





  • (3.2) Can't do it, can {I/you/he/she/they/we}? [ibidem p.59]





Let me reiterate that this phenomenon only occurs in speaking English, and in other informal communication systems like email and txting that work like speech. It is not good formal written style, except for reporting dialog in a story.


Thursday, July 26, 2012

syntactic analysis - “Instead of ʏᴏᴜʀ calling” vs “Instead of ʏᴏᴜ calling”

Which is better:




  1. Instead of your calling, maybe I should do it.


  2. Instead of you calling, maybe I should do it.





I feel like the first one is the better choice here because instead of needs a gerund, but the second sentence seems really common.

Choosing between -ing and -tion or -age

There are many cases that I have to choose between the -ing form of a verb and the -tion or - age nouns.
Like this question:



Local waves within the harbor make ...... difficult, if not impossible.
1. anchoring
2. anchorage




Which one is correct?
Is this because of grammer, or meaning, or common usage?

grammar - Can a word "it" be used to refer to a person as well?











If so, could anyone give an example pls?


Answer



It is almost never appropriate to use it for a person. Sometimes, we seem to use it when asking about somebody's gender. E.g.:




A: My wife's had a baby!



B: Is it a boy or a girl?




A: It's a boy!




but here it is just a dummy pronoun.



If you don't know the gender, you have the following options:




  1. Use an arbitray gender and stick to it (usually he).


  2. Use he / she.

  3. Use they. (This is the most "natural" way for native English speakers, although some consider it a little informal.)

  4. Use a descriptive noun. E.g. the customer.



Note that it is very offensive to refer to transexuals, transvestites, hermaphrodites, and so on as it. If the person adopts a male name, use he. If the person adopts a female name, use she.


grammatical number - Is the plural form of ID spelled ID's or ID?

How to write or tell that collection of Email ID's has been attached.

nouns - When should types of cheese be capitalized?



Does this recipe call for Cheddar cheese or cheddar cheese? Does pizza have mozzarella or Mozzarella on it? Heck, I'm not even sure if this sandwich contains Swiss cheese or swiss cheese.




Is there a convention here, or is it a matter of taste? Does it depend on whether the word was originally a proper noun ("Cheddar"), a proper adjective ("Swiss"), or something else ("bleu")?


Answer



Most writers do in fact capitalise Camembert...





...but usage isn't consistent. I'm not an expert with NGrams, but I think this chart suggests people are less likely to capitalise strong Cheddar when it's followed by the word cheese (i.e. - if the word "Cheddar" in isolation is used as a noun, we tend to capitalise; if it's an "adjectival" usage modifying the word "cheese", we don't).



Obviously certain types of cheese (Boursin, for example) are "trademarks" owned by specific producer companies, so they're much more likely to be capitalised in all contexts.







TL;DR: There's no particular "rule" - or if there is one, it's not consistently applied.


hyphenation - When should com­pound words be writ­ten as one word, with hy­phens, or with spaces?



Some compound words are written without hyphens (nonaggression, nonbeliever), some with hyphens (well-intentioned), and others with spaces (post office).



Is there a rule or good guide as to which option should be used?


Answer



In English, there are three types of compound words:






  1. the closed form, in which the words are melded together, such as firefly, secondhand, softball, childlike, crosstown, redhead, keyboard, makeup, notebook;


  2. the hyphenated form, such as daughter-in-law, master-at-arms, over-the-counter, six-pack, six-year-old, mass-produced;


  3. and the open form, such as post office, real estate, middle class, full moon, half sister, attorney general.





For the most part, compound words that are created by adding a prefix are not hyphenated. For example, there are the words anteroom, extraordinary and coordinate. Some exceptions to this rule are (from the link above):






  1. compounds in which the second element is capitalized or a number:
    anti-Semitic, pre-1998, post-Freudian

  2. compounds which need hyphens to avoid confusion:
    un-ionized (as distinguished from unionized), co-op

  3. compounds in which a vowel would be repeated (especially to avoid confusion):
    co-op, semi-independent, anti-intellectual (but reestablish, reedit)

  4. compounds consisting of more than one word: (poster's note: these are phrasal adjectives)
    non-English-speaking, pre-Civil War


  5. compounds that would be difficult to read without a hyphen:
    pro-life, pro-choice, co-edited




Your original example of "well-intentioned" is also explained here:




The other time we must use hyphenation is to join a word to a past participle to create a single adjective preceding the noun it modifies: "a well-intentioned plan," for example, or "a horseshoe-shaped bar."





So, why isn't nonaggression hyphenated? It can be broken into non + aggression, so it is formed by adding a basic prefix onto the noun. In doing so, it breaks none of the exceptions to the rule: "aggression" is not capitalized, hyphenating the term doesn't avoid confusion, a vowel isn't repeated, the compound only consists of 2 words, and it is perfectly readable without a hyphen.


Wednesday, July 25, 2012

grammaticality - did and



While reading A Dance with Dragons by George R. R. Martin, I came across the following line which seemed odd to me. (Note, English is only my third language so "seemed odd to me" is about as meaningless as it gets)




[...], even if he did look like a monstrous yellow slug and smell of piss.




The smell part is what seems off to me, though I realize there's an assumed repetition of he did. I guess I just find it sounding odd.




Is the used phrasing correct? Is it also correct to use the following line?




[...], even if he did look like a monstrous yellow slug and smelled of piss.




Which way is most common in English?


Answer



Both are possible. In the original, as you say, he did is understood. You could also write:





... if he did look like a monstrous yellow slug and did smell of piss.




In your example, only the subject he is understood and so you would still need to mark the verb as past. Personally, I don't like the combining of the two different forms of the past tense with and.



For example, I don't like:





He did go home and ate.




This is essentially what your second sentence is.



A better comparison would be:




He is walking and talking on his phone.




He is walking and is talking on his phone.




To me, both are equally correct, but the first is much more common in English. The repetition of the auxiliary verb is (or any other auxiliary for that matter) is more common when there is a large separation between the two verbs. There is no simple rule as to which is the most common.


meaning - Why not "get" a friend?

It is only natural you would want to have a friend if you moved to a different country for some reason and therefore you don't have any local friend there.



As I was looking the other day into the usage of verbs that usually go together with the very popular word "friend," I learned, unexpectedly, English speakers hardly say, "get a friend," when they commonly say, "find a friend," which is very familiar to me too.



Even more interestingly and confusingly, they often talk about "getting" a girlfriend or boyfriend as well as "finding"a girlfriend or boyfriend.



Why not "get" a friend to mean the same as "find" a friend? I'm seriously curious if my understanding is correct.

When is dropping the definite (or indefinite) article permissible and why?

I seem to be obsessed with those today.



Okay, here goes:



From The Ballad of Reading Gaol, by Oscar Wilde:




And I and all the souls in pain,
Who tramped the other ring,
Forgot if we ourselves had done
A great or little thing,
And watched with gaze of dull amaze
The man who had to swing.





From The Raven, by Edgar Allan Poe:




Open here I flung the shutter,
when, with many a flirt and flutter,
In there stepped a stately Raven of the saintly days of yore;
Not the least obeisance made he;
not a minute stopped or stayed he;
But, with mien of lord or lady, perched above my chamber door—
Perched upon a bust of Pallas just above my chamber door—
Perched, and sat, and nothing more.




Most native speakers here would know these two poems by heart (and, I suspect, some non-native ones would too): we read them over and over and commit them to memory as kids. It would not therefore be immediately obvious to everyone that the articles are missing. But they are. How is this justified?

punctuation - Question about punctuating the following sentence



Are the commas correct in the following sentence.




In the essay A Plague of Tics, the author, David Sedaris, addresses the people who had to put up with his obsessive-compulsive behaviors when he was younger.



I am unsure about the comma after Sedaris.


Answer



The comma after Sedaris is correct.



In multiple commas like you used, check to see if when the word or words before the comma if removed, there will still be meaning in the sentence. And yes there will in your sentence.



If you take 'the author' off the sentence will be meaningful. If it remains and you take 'David Sedaris' off too, the sentence will still be meaningful so you are correct.



Tuesday, July 24, 2012

relative clauses - Correct usage of *which* and *that*




I keep seeing written usage of which in cases where the writer clearly intends it to be restrictive. For example:





I have been counting these as errors because it is my understanding that that is restrictive, and which is not.



Do I have this right?


Answer



[This is an important question because of all the folks visiting this site for guidance, who may well pass answers on to other students and writers. I myself in my pre-linguist days used to fall victim to this 'rule'. I have total sympathy for the Original Poster, as I do for my former self, and all literature, EFL students and authors who are confronted with this so-called grammar rule. GMAT students don't despair, just find which non-existent rule they're looking for now. It's quite good fun and not that difficult. Anyway here's my answer to the question...]




The idea that which is not used for restrictive clauses is a myth promulgated in the worst English grammar text-books and style guides ever written. The greatest writers in the English language have continuously used which as a relative pronoun in restrictive relative clauses — as has everyone else too.



Some info from the post Sidney Goldberg on NYT grammar: zero for three, by Geoffrey Pullum, Professor of General Linguistics at the University of Edinburgh, co-author of the Cambridge Grammar of the English Language (2002), shows how far through various books you would need to go before finding which appearing as a restrictive relative pronoun. The first number given in the list below shows the number of lines in the entire book. The second number shows on which line the author first used which as a relative pronoun in a restrictive relative clause:





  • A Christmas Carol (Dickens): 1,921 lines, first occurrence on line 217 = 11% of the way through;

  • Alice in Wonderland (Carroll): 1,618 lines, line 143 = 8%;

  • Dracula (Stoker): 9,824 lines, line 8 = less than 1%;


  • Lord Jim (Conrad): 8,045 lines, line 15 = 1%;

  • Moby Dick (Melville): 10,263 lines, line 103 = 1%;

  • Wuthering Heights (Bronte): 7,599 lines, line 56 = 0.736%...




Now, I know these authors are idiots who didn't know how to speak English properly, but just how did their editors and publishers get away with it? And all the people who decided to put these books on school syllabi? They, of course, should be shot.



Getting serious again: importantly, as Pullum also shows in the post A Rule Which Will Live in Infamy, there are situations when we, in fact, cannot use that for restrictive clauses and in which we have to use which. (Oh look one of them happened right there. I couldn't for example have written ... "and in that we have to use which"). Here are the three situations Geoff Pullum describes:






  • The putative ban can’t apply when a preposition precedes the relative pronoun: The town in which she lived is grammatical but *the town in that she lived isn’t.

  • The supposed rule should be ignored when modifying demonstrative that, because that which you prefer is clearly preferable to ?that that you prefer.

  • The rule can’t apply to a conjoined which: We must trust the unknown entity who or which created us is grammatical but *We must trust the unknown entity who or that created us isn’t.




Here is the passage in which (Oh no, there I go again with another one!) the famous quote that Pullum is playing with appears:





“Yesterday, December 7, 1941—a date which will live in infamy—the United States of America was suddenly and deliberately attacked by naval and air forces of the Empire of Japan.” That was how President Franklin D. Roosevelt opened his famous infamy speech, 71 years ago. Ignoring the writing handbooks, he opened with a passive construction, which of course is just right for the rhetorical context (America as innocent victim). And he also ignored another bogeyman rule: He introduced a restrictive relative clause with which.




The answer to the OP's question, therefore, is that which can, and sometimes must, be used for restrictive relative clauses. It's not a mistake to do so.



I leave you with Geoff Pullum's last words from the link above:




Grammar snobs trying to show off their linguistic rectitude by playing gotcha with an invented rule that never matched educated usage; copy editors slaving away trying to enforce it; Microsoft Word blindly putting wavy green underlining under every relative which not preceded by a comma. What a senseless waste of time and energy.




Follow the Fowler rule if you want to; it’s up to you. But don’t tell me that it’s crucial or that the best writers respect it. It’s a time-wasting early-20th-century fetish, a bogeyman rule undeserving of the attention of intelligent grownups.



Monday, July 23, 2012

british english - Do Americans use the verb "shove up"?

I saw an American movie in which one of the characters said to the other "scooch over." Do Americans use "scooch over" to mean "shove up"?

Sunday, July 22, 2012

grammar - Verb do + verb to be + ing form

What are the correct tenses to use in the following sentence between gerund and infinitive?





What I do at this point is ____ home and _____ dinner.




Should I write:




  • What I do at this point is going home and having dinner

  • What I do at this point is go home and have dinner

  • What I do at this point is going home and have dinner

  • What I do at this point is go home and having dinner




If not clear enough, the specific concern of the question is: after the form "What I do at this point is..." what is the correct tense to use, gerund or infinitive? And then in the following "and" clause, what is the correct tense to use, gerund or infinitive?



Related questions, but none fitting the case:





Other references, more fitting:

Reflexive pronoun use when subject is a subset of the prepositional object



If a pronoun is in object position in a sentence, you don't normally use the reflexive form of the pronoun -





Sally bought a ticket for him.




unless the subject and object of the sentence are the same -




John bought a ticket for himself.




What happens in the case where there are multiple pronouns in object position, and the subject is a subset of the object? Which of the following is correct?





John bought tickets for me and him.



John bought tickets for me and himself.



Answer



If I were the writer, I'd say





John bought the tickets for himself and me




The reflexive pronoun is better placed after the subject and the verb phrase. Otherwise an even easier workaround would be:




John bought tickets for (the) both of us.




It looks neater and there is no ambiguity.




P.S credit and my thanks to @deadrat who pointed out a discrepancy with the wording


grammar - Pronunciation of ‘an hundred’

I just saw a number of comments complaining about the first n in the phrase ‘an Herculean task’, claiming it implied a mute h. But is that true? My impression has been that earlier all words on h + vowel got an an, regardless of whether or not the h was mute. Was ‘an hundred’ pronounced ‘an undred’?




PS. Let me be clearer that I am not asking about standard contemporary usage. I never doubted that ‘an Herculean task’ had an archaïc ring to it. But the fact that something is archaïc does not make it wrong.

The sentence with the most prepositions at its end -- does it really work?




What did you bring that book that I don't want to be read to from out of about 'Down Under' up for?




I was wondering whether this sentence is actually correct and if it is, whether someone could explain which preposition points to what in that sentence.


Answer



It's technically (almost) correct, but obviously a pathological case for the fun of it. Moving the prepositions into their "standard" positions and adding the appropriate pronouns gives:





For what [reason] did you bring that book about 'Down Under', out of which I don't want you to read to me, up [here]?




That is, from back to front:




  • for refers to what (what for = why)

  • up refers to bring (bring that book up)

  • about refers to Down Under, which is just a title


  • out of or from (but not both) refer to that book (out of that book)

  • to refers to the speaker (read to me)



The from out of bit is incorrect, as you can tell if you try to rearrange the sentence to involve both from and out of: it should be either from (the book) or out of (the book).



Though you should usually avoid doing so excessively, it's perfectly correct in many cases to shift a preposition to the end of a clause and omit the pronoun (such as which or whom) that would otherwise be involved:




To whom are you talking?
Who(m) are you talking to?





There's a long history of prescriptivist grammarians considering it incorrect to end a clause with a preposition, but there's such massive precedent in favour of doing so, and it's so common in ordinary speech, that you can't legitimately make the claim that it's outright wrong. And for certain examples, as the above, it sounds so awkward and stilted to use the “correct” form that that form cannot possibly be the truly correct one.


Saturday, July 21, 2012

articles - We are physicists and we are arguing over the use of "a" and "an"

Here is the situation. I am in an office full of physicists and one physicist is writing his PhD Thesis. Fundamentally, he wants to know whether he should type "an SV" or "a SV" into the computer.



SV is an acronym for "Secondary Vertex", so it is clear to us that "a secondary vertex" is correct.



So the argument is over whether




  • a or an "sounds better"




and additionally




  • is SV a new, alternative word which means the same thing as "secondary vertex" (just as one can use "roll", "bap", "barm" interchangeably in the phrase "bacon roll" to mean some bread which is probably also buttered into which one has inserted some grilled, or otherwise cooked using another method, bacon causing the butter to melt into a delicious snack most suited for eating at lunchtime.


  • or is SV an object which is to be expanded by the readed using a previously defined definition (should one read "SV" as "secondary vertex"?)




So, he should type "a secondary vertex", but is it "an SV" or "a SV". My vote is for the former as it "sounds better". (Or at least that is my opinion.)




Finally, we also consider "an STFC" or "an SRVTLVF" to be "better sounding", however "a TRVTLVF" seems to be "better sounding". We have discovered that it doesn't seem to matter what the letters of an acronym following a first "S" letter are, the "better sounding" choice is still "an" rather than "a".



Is there a rule about whether "a" or "an" should be used for acronyms?

phrases - "more of a"or "too much of a" in a plural sense



Using "more of a" and "too much of a" is quite common, but when it comes to pluralizing these expressions, things become more complicated. I've never seen someone use these with a plural subject – I just see people rephrasing:




"He is too much of an idiot to understand."



"They are too stupid to understand."





Something I have always wondered about is whether you can pluralize those two expressions, something like "They are too much of ... ". But I cannot think of any way it would be used in the plural.


Answer



I believe there are two things at play here. One is the fact that "too much of an" is dependent on a singular-typed characteristic, so it sounds clunky when converted directly to plural. The other is whether the phrase type is an established convention or not.



Consider these examples:




He is too much of an idiot to understand.
They are too much of idiots to understand.





While the above transmutation looks like it would fit, the problem is that the construction sounds unnatural, however could work.



The next revision suffers from something of the same:




He is too much of an idiot to understand.
They are too much of an idiot to understand.




This suffers from a singular-plural disagreement and sounds unnatural to the ear. Part of the issue is that "an idiot" applies to one person.




To resolve these two issues, some changes need to be made. In order to maintain continuity, these kinds of changes can be introduced, to allow singular-singular agreement.




He is too much of an idiot to understand.
They are (all) too much of an idiot to understand. (revision 1)
They (each) are too much of an idiot to understand. (revision 2)




Wherever the singular and the plural can both receive a singular-typed adjective, the construction tends to stay the same:





He is too much of an inconvenience for us at the moment.
They are too much of an inconvenience for us at the moment.
He is too much of a liability to the company now.
They are too much of a liability to the company now.




The most important reason why this works is because the singular-typed adjective here tends to be an abstract idea rather than a word that describes an individual that is countable.


grammar - Is "Michael here" correct?




Why Michael, vsause's host at the start of each video says "Michael here" instead of "Michael is here"?



Is it grammatically correct or just a slang / simplified way of speaking?


Answer



It's not an abbreviation of 'Michael is here'; rather of 'This is Michael here': compare the BBC wartime introduction 'Ici Londres'. This is a not uncommon way of introducing yourself, though it always sounds a little strange to me.



And 'grammatically correct' in your question also sounds slightly strange. No, this is not a complete sentence, but there is no reason why it should be; headlines, interjections, introductions and the like need to be understood rather than to be precise.


idioms - What are exchanges like "How are you," "I'm fine," and "See you later" called?



Some verbal/written exchanges convey almost no meaning but are part of the protocol of conversation. For example, somebody greets you with "How are you?" and they're not usually not listening for actual information, just for you to say, "Fine," or similar. Or when you go through any sort of service transaction, it seems like half a dozen "thank yous" are exchanged between both parties.



Is there a term or phrase describing the phrases we use for maintaining the facade of politeness?


Answer



This is an example of phatic communication:





phatic [ˈfætɪk] adj (Linguistics) (of speech, esp of conversational phrases) used to establish social contact and to express sociability rather than specific meaning



adjectives - use of "as that of" as comparative and possessive case following it

which of the following usage are right ?



1) The life of the rich is as peaceful as that of the poor.
2) the life of the rich is as peaceful as that of the poor's.




3) Your bicycle is as beautiful as that of his.
4) your bicycle is as beautiful as that of him.



now if second sentence is wrong then third sentence should also be wrong.
please explain. I have seen many a time a possessive case followed by "as that of" . so when can we use a possessive case after " as that of"

Definite article "the" multiple times

We have this phrase that aims to communicate that after an organization is selected, the table is shown but also the button as well.




The table and button are shown after an organization is selected.




Wouldn't it sound better to include "the" like:





The table and the button are shown after an organization is selected.




Is there a rule or something to generalize its correct use?

Friday, July 20, 2012

phrases - Is there a preferred order for niece and nephew?



Is "niece and nephew" preferred over "nephew and niece", or vice versa?



I tried using Google NGrams, but it gave inconclusive results: one was more common before 1980, then the other form became more common.


Answer



I searched for the plural equivalent of niece and nephew: Google Ngram shows that nephews and nieces used to be the most popular sequence but since the 1980s that dramatic divergence has narrowed considerably.



From the 1800s until the mid 1980s, the dominant order for the singular form used to be nephew and niece, but the gap has decreased steadily ever since, and around the 1990s, the order niece and nephew has became marginally more popular.




All of which suggest that the binomial order is no longer irreversible and today the order of preference is totally arbitrary.



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punctuation - Punctuating Quoted Questions in a Parenthetical Clause








Someone asked What is the difference between saying:




Are you still working there?



Do you still work there?




I started my answer with:





For your specific example, "Are you still working there?" versus "Do you still work there?", when referring to having a job at a company both are commonly used.




That punctuation feels wrong, but I don't know what would be preferable in American English. I am referring in particular about ending the parenthetical phrase with "Do you still work there?",. (Wow, how about the punctuation of that sentence.) I need the question mark because of the question, I need the quotes to end the quotation, I need the comma to end the parenthetical, but the rules for punctuation around quotation marks are so odd to my way of thinking that I feel like I must be doing something wrong.



What do you think? Is this the best way (without rewriting the sentence) to punctuate it? If not, what would be better?



EDIT:
So far we have :





  • The Chicago Manual of Style not specifically addressing this case but generally saying "Do you still work there?"

  • The Gregg Reference Manual saying "Do you still work there?" BUT "if the omission of a comma at this point could lead to confusion, reword the sentence to avoid the problem."

  • and most everyone else agreeing with me on "Do you still work there?",



So yeah, go ahead and close it, as we are not going to settle the question here?

grammar - apostrophes : girls' and boys' team

Quoting businesswritingblog.com:




The girls' and boys' teams are both in the playoffs. (Both girls and

boys have their own team--both have their own apostrophe.)



The girls
and boys' team
is excited about being in the playoffs.
(One team of
girls and boys--one apostrophe.)




Is there a sentence that could be formed using





girls' and boys' team
— i.e. plural boys with apostrophe; plural girls with apostrophe but a singular team?


Sentence with "auto" possessive




Consider the following English sentence:





I explained John's and Arthur's progress.




What would be the best (i.e. more elegant) way to change it if, instead of Arthur (or John), the 2nd person was myself? I was thinking of "I explained John's and my progress" but it just doesn't sound right to me ( I am a non-native English speaker).


Answer



"I explained John's progress and my progress" would be the best way to avoid any confusion about whether you are speaking about joint progress or individual progress.



See http://www.chicagomanualofstyle.org/qanda/data/faq/topics/PossessivesandAttributives/faq0032.html


Thursday, July 19, 2012

grammar - It is possible + infinitive



It is not possible to keep abreast of the normal tides of acquisition. (Source)




Can someone analyze this sentence?



My first thought was that the infinitive 'to keep' modifies possible, but then I started to doubt myself because if you make the infinitive the subject, the sentence has the same meaning. You can say "to keep abreast of the normal tides of acquisition is not possible".



What say you?

grammar - 'An historically accurate claim 'vs. 'a historically accurate claim'





'An historically accurate claim ' OR 'a historically accurate claim'



Which of these is grammatically correct if either one of them. They both sound incorrect to me


Answer



I believe a historically accurate claim is correct.




A search here reveals that while both are used, a is used much more frequently than an.


dialects - What’s the geographic distribution of different pronunciations of the word "experiment"?




ᴛʟᴅʀ: Which regions say the word experiment with its stressed syllable sounding like the word spare, and which regions say that word’s stressed syllable like the word spear?



PLEASE NOTE: This is NOT a survey question!






When it comes to pronouncing the word experiment, there appear to be two dominant North American pronunciations that are rather distinct from one another.




  1. Many people have the SQUARE vowel, as though the word spare were embedded in it. Discounting the rhotic, this appears to be the FACE vowel.
    (But sᴇᴇ ʙᴇʟᴏᴡ if you don’t merge merry–marry–Mary.)


  2. Some people have the NEAR vowel, as though the word spear were embedded. Discounting the rhotic, this appears to be the FLEECE vowel.



    (I’ve used Wells lexical sets here instead of the International Phonetic Alphabet in the hopes of making this question more accessible to a broader readership.)




Is there any geographic data on the distribution of these various different pronunciations? If not, can we surmise or infer any?



Does it matter whether it’s a noun or a verb?







Burying Barrie’s berries



Listening more closely, those from the first set aren’t all quite the same: a minority have the DRESS vowel there, not the FACE vowel. These speakers do not have the merry–marry–Mary merger, so they say it with the stressed vowel of berry, which for them is different from the one in Barrie or bury.



For me, those are all the same. Because my own accent ignores the tense–lax distinction before a rhotic, I still perceive both of those subtypes as having the same phoneme, and it is only when listening carefully as one does when transcribing an unknown language that I can make out a FACE/DRESS distinction between some sets of speakers.



After listening to a hundred samples, I’m now certain that there are a few speakers with the NURSE vowel there, as though the word spur were embedded. There might be some who shorten up FLEECE to the KIT vowel, but due to tense–lax neutralization, I’m not very accomplished at distinguishing tense vowels like FACE or FLEECE from lax ones like DRESS or KIT before phonemic /r/. Wikipedia notes:





In many North American dialects, there are ten or eleven stressed monophthongs; only five or six vowel contrasts are possible before a following /r/ in the same syllable (peer, pear, purr, par, pore, poor).




It’s the first two (or three) of those that I’m talking about here.



Research



An earlier version of this question narrowly transcribed the SQUARE version as [ɛksˈpʰeɻəmɛnt] and the NEAR version as [ɨgzˈbiːɻəmɪnt]. That's probably over-exaggerating differences of assimilatory voicing, aspiration, and reduction — aspects that are not the main point of my question. I’m just trying to divvy people up into the SQUARE group versus the NEAR group to see whether there are specific regional patterns in these two variations.



Dictionaries are a poor source for geographical data of finer granularity than grouping an entire country or even continent together, but here’s what they said:





  • The OED has /ɛkˈspɛrɪmənt/ for both noun and verb.


  • Cambridge
    has UK /ɪkˈsper.ɪ.mənt/ US /ɪkˈsper.ə.mənt/


  • Collins
    has UK /ɪkˈspɛrɪmənt/ (noun), /ɪkˈspɛrɪˌmɛnt/ (verb) and US /ɛkˈspɛrəmənt/,
    /ɪkˈspɛrəmənt/; also, & for v. usually, /ɛkˈspɛrəmɛnt/, /ɪkˈspɛrəmɛnt/; often,
    /ɛkˈspɪrəmɛnt/, /ɪkˈspɪrəmɛnt/.


  • MacMillan

    has noun /ɪkˈsperɪmənt/, verb /ɪkˈsperɪˌment/.




What I’m looking for here is more finely-grained geographic grouping than just US-vs-UK the way those dictionaries provide.



Any Geographical Data?



I’ve looked to see whether the usual suspects for such things have any geographical descriptions of these two versions, preferably maps, but came up empty-handed.



I suspect that even in the absence of such maps, the distinct phonological processes at work in the two versions may be sufficiently characteristic of one or another region of North America that a good answer to the question of which regions say which of these could be formulated.



Answer



Here are my thoughts, guesses, and the small amount of evidence that I have gathered.



The pronunciation of experiment with the "merry" vowel (which is the same as the "square" vowel for speakers with the merry-Mary merger, and the same as the "nurse" vowel for speakers with the "ferry–furry merger") seems likely to be more widespread: as indicated in the original question, it's the main pronunciation given by dictionaries. It's also the pronunciation that would be "expected" based on theoretical considerations: a single vowel letter (other than ) in a stressed syllable followed by an unstressed, non-word-final syllable tends to correspond to a "short" vowel in pronunciation (this is sometimes called "Luick's Law"; it's also related to the phenomenon called "trisyllabic laxing", although that name is usually used to refer to some kind of process supposed to specifically affect the pronunciation of certain kinds of derived words, and it seems a bit questionable to me to classify "experiment" as "derived" because even though we can identify an ending -ment and an initial element experi- that occur in other words, both would be bound morphemes; no word like *experi occurs in English as a free base).



I suspect the pronunciation of experiment with the "near" vowel arose either due to influence of the spelling (the pronunciation of "e" in contexts like this tends to be rather unpredictable), the influence of the pronunciation of the related word experience (where the "near" vowel is regular because of the occurence of unstressed "i" before another vowel in the next syllable), or some combination of both.



The phonetic similarity of the vowels might also have contributed to the development and maintenance of the variation. (There are a number of other words of Greek or Latin origin spelled with "erV" (where "V" is any vowel letter) that show variation between these two vowels, such as feral, sclera, query, inherent, coherent, adherent, hysteria—although in these words the "near" vowel is actually preferred by prescriptivists because the vowel occurs in a stressed penultimate syllable, or before unstressed "i" followed by another vowel—and (atmo)spheric(al), for which most prescriptive sources seem to prefer the short vowel, but the long vowel of "near" seems to be common, probably in large part because of influence from the related noun (atmo)sphere.)



I think spelling pronunciations and analogical changes tend to have less clearly defined regional distributions than regular sound changes/mergers, so I am not sure if it would be possible to determine any geographical trends. Like you, I haven't found any source that addresses this question.




The use of the "near" vowel is denounced by Charles Harrington Elster, author of the prescriptive pronunciation guide The Big Book of Beastly Mispronunciations. The relevant entry is available as part of the examples on PBS's website at "What Speech Do We Like Best?":




Experiment ek-SPER-uh-mi̲nt or ek-SPAIR-uh-mi̲nt. The first syllable is often, and acceptably, lightened to ik-.



Do not say ek-SPEER-uh-mi̲nt. Properly, there is no spear in experiment.







The variant with the "near" vowel doesn't seem to be particularly recent. It was warned against in an issue of the San Bernardino Daily Sun from Monday, August 4, 1947:




There is no "spear" in experiment. The "e" in the second syllable should have the short (eh) sound as in error, errand. Be sure to say: ek-SPEHR-i-m'nt.



[...] Two other words which [sic] the second syllable "e" is heard erroneously as "ee" are severity, as "suh-VEER-i-tee," and sincerity as "sin-SEER-i-tee." But, like the second syllable "e" of experiment the "e's" should be short (eh) as: suh-VEHR-i-tee, sin-SEHR-i-tee.




("Take my word for it", by Frank Colby)




There seems to be some evidence of this pronunciation from the 19th century in the form of the spelling "expeeriment" that seems to have been used intentionally by some authors in dialogue to indicate the pronunciation with the "near" vowel. The context suggests that the authors viewed it as a pronunciation that might be heard from "substandard" speakers.



Here are some examples I found using Google Books, going from most to least recent:




  • 1898:




    "Now, let's try an expeeriment!" said he, quite in the tone of a Franklin, or a scientific philosopher of modern days. "There's nawthin' like expeerimental conclusions. Jes' you turn your back toward the door, an' I'll turn the lock. There! Did you hear it, sir? Good! hardly noticed it at all, you say? Ah! I thought so; that'll do finely! Well, we'll try the hinges, now. How does it go, sir? Couldn't hear 'em at all, hey? Ha, ha! My expeeriment's bean a suckcess. ..."





    (p. 511, The Latimers: a tale of the western insurrection of 1794, by the American author Henry Christopher McCook)


  • 1889:




    "I guess Thorne's well-meanin' enough," said the other pacifically. "He's a scientific feller, and he's jist wantin' to expeeriment a bit."



    "Well, he kin expeeriment all he wants to with his iron and stuff, but I'd advise him to let flesh and blood alone."





    (p. 298, Alan Thorne, by Martha Livingston Moodey)




Interestingly, some of the even earlier results for "expeeriment" on Google Books suggest that at one point, some authors associated this pronunciation with dialectal Scottish English, although I don't know if this was an accurate perception or if it was solely based on stereotypes or misconceptions about how Scottish speakers pronounced vowels. (And even if this pronunciation was in fact commonly heard from Scottish speakers in the past, I don't know if that's at all related to the use of the pronunciation with the "near" vowel by some present-day American English speakers).



I found a source ("Overt and Covert Scots Features in Ulster Speech", by G. Brendan Adams) that says that Scots may have the "feel" vowel in some contexts where English has the "pet" vowel, giving the examples "heid" = "head", "sweit" = "sweat", "frein" = "friend", "deid" = "dead" and "weel" = "well". But the words head, sweat, friend, dead all originally had long vowels, and well seems to have maybe had a long vowel in Old English, so the use of [i] in these words in Scots actually seems like a retention of vowels that English shortened rather than the result of any kind of Scottish [ɛ] > [i] change that didn't occur in English. I know very little about this however so this is just my rambling thoughts.




  • 1875:





    I'm far frae discooragin' ye frae tryin' the expeeriment.' An he baggit the ciller,--ha, ha, ha!"




    (p. 31, The Adventures of Mick Callighin, M.P.: A Story of Home Rule; And, The De Burghos, by W. R. Ancketill)



    This book is set in Ireland, but the speaker here has a Scottish accent for some reason; on a previous page he says "Cawmill they ca' me in Coonty Doon ; we're a' Scoatch in thae pairts" (p. 26).


  • 1828:





    But a' the whilk time I ganged o'er the Atlantic, just for the sak of expeeriment, an' travel, and sic like--naething ither, tent ye--for I were weel aff at hame, in Embro', an' might ha'e hangit half the ceety




    (p. 4, "The Barber's Letter", Ps and Qs)




One thing I wondered was if we could look at rhymes to see evidence of how people pronounced it, but the short-e pronunciation seems to only have one rhyme, in "merriment" (used by the Victorian poet Robert Browning in the poem "The Glove": "Amid the Court's scoffing and merriment,—
/ As if from no pleasing experiment") and the long-e pronunciation only a possible rhyme for American English speakers in the obscure word "diriment" (for speakers with the serious-Sirius merger) or maybe a nonce-word "cheeriment" derived from "cheery".






A similar question was asked on the GameSpot Forums, in the thread When did it become "Ex-peer-i-ment"? from 2002. But the participants there didn't seem to know of any regional patterns within the US either. The original poster said:




I've been noticing this more and more, lately. I used to think it was a regional thing in the US, although I wasn't really clear what region it was.




In a later post, he says





I've lived in Boulder, Colorado for most of my life but I'm originally from New York. My "accent" would be consistent with the Denver Metropolotan area, which as far as the US goes is one of the more "unaccented" examples of American English (or so I've been told).



meaning - "It can be safely deleted" vs. "It can safely be deleted"



Is there a subtle difference between the following two sentences?






  1. It can be safely deleted.

  2. It can safely be deleted.




If they mean the same thing, is one preferred for other reasons?


Answer



There's a subtle difference. If you claimed "Fugu can safely be eaten" in Japan (highly poisonous pufferfish) you'd probably be arrested. On the other hand "Fugu can be safely eaten" or "Fugu can be eaten safely" are accurate statements. It can be, provided it's prepared by an expert chef.


grammar - Articles after the preposition (by)

Why would we say by car or by bus instead of saying by a car or by a bus, or by the bus or by the car? Because when I want to refer to a specific kind of a car, how would I say it? Such as: a gang ran away by a car or by the car.

Wednesday, July 18, 2012

agreement with compound subject, with an intervening prepositional phrase

I am struggling with a sentence, as in a condolence note:



Your kindness and friendship to both my parents [was/were] so special.


If I omit the "to both my parents" bit, then we have a compound subject that sounds natural with "were":



Your kindness and friendship were so special.



But when I add in the "to both my parents", my ear grates at the "were" and wants a "was" there. Which is correct, and what has changed?



I suspect that adding the phrase "to both my parents" in this way (without commas) creates an adherence between the "kindness" and "friendship" and effectively fuses the compound into a singular entity?

grammar - Russian speakers and "I feel myself to be ..."



I was told that it is a typical mistake for Russian speakers to say I feel myself badly instead of I feel ill.



I wonder to what extent such constructs sound wrong to native speakers?






  1. I feel myself badly


  2. I feel myself well


  3. I feel myself to be a hero


  4. I feel myself to be an astronaut


  5. I feel myself to be suppressed (I feel myself suppressed)


  6. I feel myself sleeping (I feel myself to be sleeping)






Are they always wrong or just convey a different meaning? Are there examples of native English speakers using such constructs?



UPDATE



Some comments said that there is a erotic connotation in this usage. I would like this to be explained as well.


Answer



All of these sentences are grammatically valid, but for some of them the intended meaning is not at all clear, and they are not the way that most English speakers would express these ideas.




In general, "I feel myself" is generally understood to mean touching yourself for autoerotic pleasure, which is probably not what you mean in any of these examples.



"I feel myself badly." Sounds like you mean that you are unskilled at autoeroticism. If what you mean is that you are sick or unhappy, you should say simply "I feel bad."



"I feel myself well." Similar to badly but in the opposite direction. You probably mean "I feel good."



"I feel myself to be a hero/astronaut/suppressed." Valid. These would be understood to mean that you think you "qualify" as one of these things, but by using the word "feel" rather than simply stating that you "are", you imply that the classification might be debatable. Like, someone who has flown very high-altitude airplanes might say, "I feel myself to be an astrounaut", knowing that others will challenge the claim. I think most Enlgish speakers would be more likely to say, "I consider myself to be an astrounaut" or "I think of myself as an astronaut" or "I think I am an astronaut." But the sentence as written is valid if that's what you mean. Note this is different from saying, "I feel like a [whatever]". In that case, you are not claiming to actually be whatever, just that you have some similar experience. Like, "After an hour in the Space Shuttle simulator, I feel like an astronaut."



"I feel myself sleeping." I'm not sure what you're trying to say. If you're sleeping, you're not really feeling anything. Maybe "I feel myself falling asleep"?


writing style - What are the real rules for choosing between the simple past and past perfect when both actions are in the past?



What are the real rules for choosing past perfect versus choosing past simple when you have two different past actions?



I ask because the English sequence of tenses rules I was taught would have made me choose different tenses than those the writers in all three examples I show below chose.




That makes me think I wasn’t taught the correct, or at least the complete, rules.



What are they really, and why?







  1. Why is past perfect used here for the second verb instead of past simple again like the first one?






    • They soothed him with hugs and the first kind words he had heard since the beginning of his chastisement.




    Why is it had heard instead of simply heard, like this?







    • They soothed him with hugs and the first kind words he heard since the beginning of his chastisement.





    Is the second version also right?


  2. Why are both verbs in the second sentence in past simple instead of the first one of them being in past perfect to show that it (had?) happened first?






    • We played tennis yesterday. Half an hour after we began playing, it started to rain.




    Wouldn’t it be correct to use after we had begun playing here, like this?






    • We played tennis yesterday. Half an hour after we had begun playing, it started to rain.






    Is the second version also right?


  3. Here again, why is the first verb in past perfect instead of in past simple like the second one?





    • One of the young men who had been injured in an attack on our supply lines was a laborer on the construction site.





    Why not use this version instead?






    • One of the young men who were injured in an attack on our supply lines was a laborer on the construction site.






    Is the second version also right? What about this one?






    • One of the young men who were injured in an attack on our supply lines had been a laborer on the construction site.










If the originals are all perfectly right, then are my proposals also right or are they wrong? Could they ever be right?



Could the originals ever be wrong? How do you decide which to use?




Do they mean different things to a native speaker?


Answer



It's quite hard to say in any particular case that it's wrong to use the past simple rather than the past perfect. For cases (1) and (2), I would say that the tenses the writers chose are the most likely tenses for native English speakers to use. For (3), we simply don't have enough information to decide one way or the other.




  1. The hugs were after the beginning of his confinement, and the verb had heard acquires the entire time frame of his confinement from the since, so the time frame of the verb had heard is before the hugs. Here, the order of events is different from the order they occur in the sentence, so we are likely to use the past perfect.


  2. We usually don't use the past perfect if the order of the verbs is clear. Here, the verbs occur in the sentence in the same order that they happen (if this isn't the case, it's a trigger for using the past perfect), and there's also the preposition after in the sentence, so the order of events is perfectly clear, so the past perfect is optional here. You could use it, but most native English speakers wouldn't.


  3. There are two events here, and if I ignore the tenses in the sentence, the order of these events isn't at all clear. I would infer from the tenses in the sentence that he either started or resumed his work at the construction site after he was injured in the attack. If he first worked at the construction site, and then was injured in the attack severely enough that he couldn't work, I would consider the writer's verb tenses to be wrong.