Monday, February 15, 2016

etymology - Did the non-standard pronunciation of “gold” as "goold" come from an Old English sound change?



John Walker in his Critical Pronunciation Dictionary (1791) transcribes the pronunciation of the word “gold” as




go¹ld, or go²o²ld




which in modern transcription equates to /goʊld/ or /guːld/.




He says




It is much to be regretted that the second sound of this word is grown much more frequent than the first. It is not easy to guess at the cause of this unmeaning deviation from the general rule, but the effect is to empoverish the sound of the language, and to add to its irregularities. It has not, however, like some other words, irrecoverably lost its true pronunciation. Rhyme still claims its right to the long open o, as in bold, cold, fold, &c.




This made me think of an old post by Janus Bahs Jacquet that describes a late Old English sound change of vowel lengthening before homorganic clusters of voiced consonants, including ld (this is why “wild” and “mild” are currently pronounced with “long i”), and I wondered if this could be the origin of /guːld/: Old English /gold/ being lengthened to /goːld/, which after the Great Vowel Shift would be /guːld/.



However, I found little supporting evidence for this idea. Walker evidently thinks the /uː/ pronunciation was recent in his time (although he could be wrong about this).




But on the other hand, I found a book English as we speak it in Ireland by Patrick Weston Joyce (1910) that says




Such words as old, cold, hold are pronounced by the Irish people ould, cowld, hould (or howlt); gold is sounded goold and ford foord. I once heard an old Wicklow woman say of some very rich people 'why these people could ait goold.' These are all survivals of the old English way of pronouncing such words.




Maybe "survivals of the old English way" here just refers to survivals from Walker's time, not from significantly before. It is interesting however that "ford" also shows this vowel since it also had /o/ before a homorganic voiced consonant cluster in Old English.



The OED says of gold:





Forms:  Also ME guold, ME–15 golde, (ME gowlde), 17–18 Sc. and north. dial. gowd.



Etymology: Common Germanic: Old English gold




It doesn’t seem to record any attested Middle English spelling with “oo,” although it’s true that vowel doubling was only inconsistently applied in Middle English to mark vowel length.



I also cannot find any clear examples of other words where Old English short “o” corresponds to modern English /uː/ due to lengthening before homorganic consonants, although I looked through the Bosworth-Toller Anglo-Saxon Dictionary for Old English words containing “ong,” “omb,” “ond,” "ord" or “old”.




The unclear examples that I found were the following:




  • with -old: mo(u)ld seems similar to gold: it also had “o” in Old English, and the OED says it was spelled with “oo” at some times in the past. But like “gold,” the current standard pronunciation has /oʊ/ rather than /uː/. Bold = “a dwelling” from OE bold is now archaic, but was spelled “boold” at one point in the past. “Fold” = “the earth” (from OE folde) shows no signs of having ever been pronounced with /uː/, but it is not a very common word.


  • with -ord: ford, mentioned in the Joyce quote above. Board, which has some historical spellings like boord and bourd that hint at /uː/. Hoard, which like board has some spellings like hoord. (The modern pronunciation of these words is an unclear indicator of their original vowel because before /r/, original /uː/ is often conflated with /o/ due to lowering changes, as in whore and floor). Word, which shows a completely different development that may be related to the initial /w/.


  • with -ong: among comes from Old English on gemange or the phonetic variant on gemonge. The development of the vowel to /ʌ/ seems very unclear to me. It apparently was pronounced with a“short o” sound as the spelling suggests in at least some accents of Early Modern English (John Hart's pronunciation of English (1569-1570), by Otto Jespersen 1907); it seems to me this could either be retained from the “o” variant of Old English, or be derived from the “a” variant via lengthening followed by shortening: /ɑ/ > /ɑː/ > /ɔː/ > /ɒ/. I at one point had the idea that the /ʌ/ pronunciation might come from /o/ > /oː/ > /uː/ > /u/, but there seems to be no evidence for that.




The fact that the letter after the vowel is “l” in particular could be relevant, since vocalization of /l/ to /w/ is a common sound change both historically and currently in English, but I have never heard of a sound change/ol/ > /owl/ > /uːl/ occuring in any other words.




So I find myself stumped, and now I’d like to learn if anyone else knows more about the historical pronunciation of “gold” as “goold” that Walker and Joyce record (and the pronunciation of "ford" as "foord" mentioned by Joyce). Is it as inexplicable and random as Walker makes it out to be, or are there any similar sound changes or historical details that can explain it? Is it related to the fact that "gold" and "old" had different vowels in Old English, as I initially thought, or is this just a coincidence? Do any accents still have it today?


Answer



"Goold" does seem to be the regular result of lengthening of Old English /o/ before /ld/.



Jespersen (1909) says "goold" developed regularly



I got around to reading Otto Jespersen's Modern English Grammar on Historical Principles, Part I: Sounds and Spellings (1909), and I have found it very helpful so far. I found that Jespersen discusses the development of this word and seems to agree with my speculation that /uːld/ was a natural, rather than an unpredictable development from Old English /old/ (contrary to Walker's characterization of the word as having lost its "true pronunciation" because of an "unmeaning deviation from the general rule").



Jespersen argues that the current pronunciation /goʊld/ developed from short forms used in compound words and other derivatives. (This explanation is similar to a common explanation for the unexpectedly short vowel /ɪ/ in the noun "wind".) Just as goose with /uː/ (from earlier [oː]) gives us the compound goshawk with /ɒ/ (from earlier [o]), "gold" [goːld] is supposed to have developed a shortened form [gold].





In gold OE o lengthened should give ME /o˙/ and Mod [u˙]: this is, indeed, a form frequently given by the authorities of the preceding centuries; but in compounds, like goldsmith, etc., /o/ would remain short, and /ol/ regularly becomes /oul/, thus accounting for the present pronunciation (10.33); Shakespeare rimes the word (Merch. II. 7.66) with told, sold, behold, all of them old /ɔ˙/-words; [Elphinston] 1787 had /u˙/;
[Johnston] 1764 and [Walker] 1775 and 1791 have both pronunciations[...]




(§4.222, p. 119)



Jespersen also compares it to two other words that I didn't mention in my question, should and would (§3.521, p. 91). While these are pronounced with /ʊ/ today, it seems plausible that this developed from earlier /uː/. However, the phonological development of these words from Old and Middle English to early Modern English looks a little complicated, and Jespersen doesn't give any explanation, so I'm not entirely sure of the correctness of the comparison (one difference from gold is that the final dental in should and would is the past-tense suffix).



"Foord" may be another (the only other?) good example




I also found a source that backs up the idea of ford as an example of the same kind of lengthening. In a review article, Peter Kitson cites Gillis Kristensson (A Survey of Middle English Dialects 1290–1350..., 2002) as saying that only a small number of words that had o in Old English developed Middle English spellings with ou (Kristensson p. 66). Kitson says "More than half of them are Gould(e) for ‘gold’, most of the rest Fourd(e) for ‘ford’". Although Kristensson apparently doesn't specify the quality of the long vowel in these words, Kitson says " I think there is no doubt [...] that ū is the vowel actually meant by these spellings" and points out that "The two main words are ones for which pronunciations with it are known to have existed later in English; they survive in the surnames Gould and Foorde" (p. 140).



There seems to be no definite evidence for lengthening in ong



Jespersen does also talk about "ong" /ʌng/, although I'm not sure whether his analysis is considered correct today (it seems rather tentative). Jespersen doesn't actually think "ng" caused a preceding vowel to lengthen: although he acknowledges that the "usual theory" explains OE ang [*ɑng] > Mod ong [ɔŋ~ɒŋ] via [ɑ] > [ɑː] > [ɔː] > [ɔ] (> [ɒ]), he thinks the lengthening step is unnecessary and prefers to simply postulate [ɑŋg] > [oŋg]. (§3.511, p. 90)



He attributes the vowel in "among" to the influence of the preceding labial consonant, comparing it to words like murder < OE morðor (n.), myrðran (v.) and the many words spelled with "wo" like word, worse, worm etc.





We have also /u/, now [ʌ], between /m/
and /n/: among, -st OE ongemang ([Hart] 1569 and [Gill] 1621
with o), mongrel, formerly also spelt mungril, probably
from the same stem, and monger OE mangere ([Gill] 1621
kosterd-munger), while OE ang after other consonants has
become /oŋ/, now [ɔŋ]: long, song, throng. Cf. PE [A] in
month, etc.




(§3.43, p. 84)



Sunday, February 14, 2016

phrases - Word Combination question

Certain words are often used in a fixed combination. As an example consider the phrase - 'hardly......when' as used in the sentence - "Hardly had I entered the room when the light went out." For clarity consider another example - "No sooner did the teacher go out than the pupils started playing."



What should be the combination for -
1) Rarely...
2) Never before...




Also, can anyone provide me any links where I can find more of such combinations?

grammar - Using "required" in sentences

In the following sentence, I do not know if the preposition "for" after "required" is correct. I think I can use "to" after "required", but I do not know which one is more grammatically correct? Please help me out with this issue. Thanks!




Solving the mentioned problems can contribute to finding key answers required for enabling this technology.


grammar - I recommend your reading this question



I remember that we have learnt a structure, what has always been really strange to me. We can say that "I recommend to do something" However in the strange structure we can say something like(I am not sure): "I suggest you(/your) not being here". So it is built up:




[object] [verb] [indirect object] [gerund]


I am not sure that it was exactly like this, but I am eager to find out how it is called, when to use it and if I can use with all kinds of verbs. I hope your figuring this out.


Answer



I recommend that you read first about the so-called 'simple catenative' structures in English ( http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Appendix:English_catenative_verbs ), and then check on the 'complex catenative' construction (Huddleston & Pullum).



There has been an extensive debate on the actual cases involving recommend as the 'lead' (catenating) verb at http://www.wordwizard.com/phpbb3/viewtopic.php?f=6&t=21740 . Complex catenation:





recommend somebody to do something: We'd recommend you to book your
flight early
.




is licensed by oxfordlearnersdictionaries



but the structure using a that-clause ( We'd recommend that you book your flight early. ) sounds far more idiomatic to me. We'd advise you to book your flight early. is, on the other hand, totally idiomatic.



We recommend your (gerund) is quite a common construction, arguably catenative (how 'verby' are gerunds?) (that they are quite 'nouny' is indicated by the fact that 'your', 'her' etc are often used with them):





We do recommend your leaving the gauze over the surgery site... (Google)



Article - "a" or "the" or plural for countable nouns?



I think a countable noun are usually of the following 3 forms:





  • the + countable noun (single form)

  • a + countable noun (single form)

  • countable noun (plural form)



I am confused about which to pick for the following sentence. Should it be




The map is usually a crucial prerequisite for location services.





OR




A map is usually a crucial prerequisite for location services.




OR





Maps are usually a crucial prerequisite for location services.



Answer



The definite article, the indefinite article and the zero article can all be used when a noun phrase makes generic reference, that is, when it refers to a whole class, rather than just one or more instances of the class. In some contexts, just one of the three is appropriate, but all three sentences in your example can, to adapt the words of the ‘Longman Student Grammar of Spoken and Written English’, be understood to express a general truth about the class of things called maps.



In the second part of each sentence, you need to change ‘for location services’ to ‘for the location of services’ or ‘for locating services’.


Saturday, February 13, 2016

synonyms - Difference between yare and nimble?

Based on the definitions, yare1 seems like a subset of nimble, that is to say, anytime you could use yare1, you could use nimble1 instead, but nimble2 and nimble3 are clearly (I think) distinct from yare1. So when would you ever use yare1 specifically over nimble1?



Also, I think what is adding to my confusion is that the "archaic" yare3 definition includes nimble as a synonym.



I am of course not conidering yare2 (or really even yare3) in the context of this question, just yare1.






From dictionary.com:





Yare




  1. quick; agile; lively.

  2. (of a ship) quick to the helm; easily handled or maneuvered.

  3. Archaic.
    ready; prepared.
    nimble; quick.




http://www.dictionary.com/browse/yare







Nimble




  1. quick and light in movement; moving with ease; agile; active; rapid:
    nimble feet.


  2. quick to understand, think, devise, etc.:
    a nimble mind.

  3. cleverly contrived:
    a story with a nimble plot.



http://www.dictionary.com/browse/nimble




also want to include where I came across the weird word in the first place:
http://gatherer.wizards.com/Pages/Card/Details.aspx?name=yare

grammaticality - Is there some rule against ending a sentence with the contraction "it's"?



I heard this lyric in a song the other day and it just sounded so wrong that I assumed it must be incorrect grammar, but I can't find any specific prohibition that applies.





That's what it's.




That rolls off your tongue with the grace of a moose in a tutu, but I can't figure out why.



There is clearly no problem with ending other sentences with a contraction. These sound fine.




I thought I could, but I can't.
Stop touching that, it will fall off if you don't.
You say that the sky is green, but it isn't.





Also, it sounds just fine if you remove the contraction:




That's what it is.




So what's up with this construction? Should it be avoided?


Answer



This is covered in the Cambridge Grammar of the English Language (CGEL), as it turns out, in Chapter 18, “Inflection Morphology and Related Matters”, section 6, “Phonological reduction and liaison”.




The form ’s, representing either has or is, along with ’m (am), ’re (are), ’ve (have), ’ll (will), and ’d (had or would) are called clitics, and they are a variant of what are known as weak forms of words, which are pronunciations of words like a, have, from, you, etc. (about fifty in total) with a reduced vowel, such as schwa.



In the discussion of weak and strong forms, CGEL points out that there are certain grammatical contexts that require strong forms, and one of those contexts is something called stranding, where the object of a phrase is preposed (moved before the phrase). These are examples they give of stranding requiring strong forms:




a. Who did you give it [to __ ]?
b. We’ll help you if we [can __].
c. They want me to resign, but I don’t intend [to __].




In each of these cases, the word in the brackets has a weak form, but it cannot be used in this context because its object has been stranded. Of course, in written English, there is no difference between weak and strong forms—it’s only a spoken difference—but clitics are distinguished in written English, and the restriction on weak forms also extends to clitics. (There are additional restrictions on clitics, but they are not relevant to this discussion).




So, thus we can say that the second is in the sentence It is what it [is __] cannot be reduced to either a weak form or to a clitic because of the restriction to strong forms in cases of syntactic stranding.