Sunday, November 30, 2014

nouns - Terms for "natural gender" and "grammatical gender"

This post is partly inspired by previous posts, such as
this one, on non-existence of grammatical gender in English. My question is mainly about what "natural gender" and "grammatical gender" are to an English noun.



There are nouns, such as 'mare', or (debatably) 'ship' whose natural gender is perceived to be feminine by significant number of speakers. Most nouns, however, either are of a neutral natural gender or have got no natural gender. (I wonder whether there is a consensus on which of the two is the case.) Wikipedia also seems to suggest that gender pertains to referents rather than to nouns.



In the linked question, the OP derives "grammatical gender" from
"natural gender" for those nouns that have got the latter. This is relevant, because a natural gender seems to be the sole reason to even think about a grammatical gender, or traces thereof, for a word. But then it seems to entail something like a partial grammatical category that only some nouns have. It is not inflectional. It is not a remnant of previously existing grammatical gender in English.




Is there any term for what "natural gender" and the putative "grammatical gender" is to a noun?

grammaticality - "a question by you" or "a question of you"

Is it grammatically correct to say,




"What a silly question of you..."





My friend is trying to convince me that




"What a silly question by you..."




is the only correct way.

phrases - Meaning of "available soon" (from a test item)

stackexchange!



I've been referring to this site for a while now and have finally decided to join you all.




This is a semantics and use question about the phrase "available soon" that appeared as part of a test item for EFL students. I'm curious about what answer native speakers of English would select. I won't say too much here as I don't want to influence how one reads and answers the item.



I would like to ask interested individuals to read the following dialogue and then answer the multiple choice question. If possible, I would like to hear the reasoning behind your choice.



Thanks for your time...



Woman: Have you looked at this catalog yet?



Man: Yes. Which car do you like?




Woman: I’m interested in the Roadmaster. It’s environmentally friendly and has great safety features plus a navigation system.



Man: I don’t really want an electric car.



Woman: How about a hybrid like the Supersonic? It has a rear-view camera, and I heard it’s the only model in stock.



Man: Hybrids are too expensive.



Woman: Then which car were you thinking of?




[This part omitted but not necessary for the answer.]



Man: I’ve got a better idea. How about the Grand Adventure? It’s a hybrid like the Supersonic so it’s environmentally friendly. And it’s got the safety features too.



Woman: That seems like a good compromise. Let’s take a test drive on Saturday.



Man: Good idea.



Question: Which car is available soon?




(1) The Grand Adventure.
(2) The Roadmaster.
(3) The Supersonic.
(4) The Tiger Minivan.

grammar - If one sentence begins with a conjunction, and the first one ends with free modifiers, how can I join the two into one sentence?

I have two sentences: one ending with free modifiers, and one beginning with a conjunction. But I want them to be one sentences. Can I use a semicolon or a colon? It seems that if I put a comma there, it would seem awkward because the conjunction would follow the two free modifiers, and it would the syntax would not be clear.



This is the sentence:




Having in times past debated with you over many issues, I could not well contend for my own views, being too nervous to express myself perfectly, too nervous because of you. But now having nothing to make me nervous, I have set down this letter, defending those views which I could not before."


questions - When is "Does... have...?" correct versus "Is... having... ?"



I have to generate random questions Yes/No about hotels, restaurants, etc. for a Natural-Language Programming task. The focus is on questions about characteristics about such places that are rather dynamic (e.g., current length of queue, available parking spaces).



I'm trying to cover a wide range of formulations so that not all questions look too much alike (e.g. Is KFC nice? Are the rooms in Hilton Hotel large?). As a non-native English speaker, I stumble upon some problems to guarantee grammatically correct questions. Given the following two example questions:






  • Does [RESTAURANT-NAME] have a promotion?

  • Is [RESTAURANT-NAME] having a promotion?




I would say that both questions convey the same meaning, with the latter maybe emphasizing the current moment (implying that promotions are rather infrequent and dynamic). Is this correct?




My follow-up question is now: When I can use both forms interchangeably? For example, when I have





  • Does [RESTAURANT-NAME] have vegan dishes?

  • Is [RESTAURANT-NAME] having vegan dishes?




The second one "feels" wrong since the menu usually doesn't change much over time. Am I correct to say that the possibility to formulate a "Is/Are... having... ?" depends on the meaning/semantics of the question? In other words, I cannot always use both formulations and I cannot trivially decide in a program?



Answer



The word have has multiple definitions. Here are two:




have verb



1 Possess, own, or hold.
‘he had a new car and a boat’



4 Perform the action indicated by the noun specified (used especially in spoken English as an alternative to a more specific verb)

‘We will be having a meeting soon to examine our options, to see what is possible.’



- ODO




Your promotion example uses definition 4 (action) whereas your vegan dishes example uses definition 1 (possession).



You ask:





Am I correct to say that the possibility to formulate a "Is/Are... having... ?" depends on the meaning/semantics of the question? In other words, I cannot always use both formulations and I cannot trivially decide in a program?




Yes. When used in the sense of possession, the is having form sounds awkward.






grammar - Plural of “advice”

The dictionary says that advice can only be used in the singular. But in a specific part of computer science (aspect-oriented programming) this word is used to reference some object that implements some specific functionality. There can be many such objects in the program, and sometimes it's required to say something about a number of them. Is it OK to use advices in this case, or is it absolutely wrong? What is the best solution?

Origin of ending a sentence with a preposition-German separable verbs?




One thing I've noticed about the usage of ending a sentence with a preposition is how similar the construction is to German separable verbs. With German separable verbs, the prefix is often a preposition when taken by itself, such as "mit-kommen" = accompany, but is "come with" if it's broken into parts. In a regular declarative sentence in German, this would be written with the prefix at the end, such as "Paul kommt Erich mit" = "Paul accompanies Erick."



My question is, aside from the parallel, is there an actual causal relationship here? Is the common usage of putting a preposition at the end come from an old German construction with separable verbs?


Answer



This won't be an answer, exactly, but more of a pointer towards other sources.



First of all, terminology. What you are talking about is called preposition stranding. It seems to be very rare (although not nonexistent) outside Germanic languages. How exactly to analyze it within Germanic languages, including whether there is a unified treatment, remains an open problem. And I will stop there, and just give a bunch of sources.



On the Linguistics : What motivates/allows preposition stranding in English, but disallows it in other languages, like Mandarin?




On Wikipedia: Preposition stranding.



And then come papers and such.



This Master's thesis has a good literature review.



This book, The Germanic Languages, discusses the topic of preposition stranding.



English as North Germanic discussess it, too.




On the historical development of preposition stranding in English



Case Theory and Preposition Stranding



Early Germanic preposition stranding revisited



Preposition Stranding and Resumptivity in West Germanic



Preposition-Stranding and Passive




Preposition Stranding, Passivisation, and Extraction from Adjuncts in Germanic



And many more.


relative clauses - Omission of ‘that is’ in English sentence



In the sentence:
“it is a culture very comfortable with silence”




The “that” and “is” is omitted, anyone know what this is called or why it happens?


Answer



It's called ellipsis, and as a previous commenter has said, it's another way of modifying the noun. Ellipsis is used when there is no risk of the subject being confused (ie the subject stays the same) in order to make the phrase more elegant and to avoid redundancy.


Saturday, November 29, 2014

word choice - What's the difference between 'group' and 'grouping'?



I'm not a native English speaker and I was wondering the difference between those two terms.




From what I understood so far 'group' is a generic word used to denote a number of persons/things considered related in some way.
'grouping' is used to denote a group of people sharing a common intent or interest.



Is this the case? It seems that 'grouping' has a more specific meaning and that 'group' can be used always in place of 'grouping' (because it's a more general term).



So in which case do you use 'group' and in which one do you use 'grouping' instead?


Answer



When you use the word group your emphasis should be on the collection of things in the group.



How many people do you have in your group?




When you use the word grouping your emphasis should be on the act of forming the group rather than the group itself.



Which grouping would be better- girls in one group and guys in another, or else adults vs children?


What is the term for "‑ate" noun/verb pairs, and why can’t I find references to "hyphenate" used that way?

When you conjugate (verb, conjuGATE) things you get a conjugate (noun, conjuGIT).




When you precipitate (verb, ...TATE) a solution you get a precipitate (noun, ...TIT).



When you concentrate (verb, ...TRATE) something you get a concentrate (noun, often ...TRATE occasionally ...TRIT).



Is there a name for this category of words, where a verb ending with "ate" pronounced with a long A produces a noun ending with "ate" pronounced with [sometimes] a short I (or a short a/e/u in some dialects or for some specific words)?



And, as a followup, why can I find no reference or examples online of "hyphenate" being used as a noun to describe two words that have been hyphenated? There's an uncommon definition where it refers to the subject described by the hyphenated words, but that isn't the same as it referring to the words themselves. I’ve heard this term used many times in my life, often in the context of amateur fiction writers or college writing courses.

Friday, November 28, 2014

present participle - Something had me do or Something had me doing something else?

I’m edit­ing a short story and I’ve stum­bled upon a prob­lem. I
fre­quently use struc­tures like:





  • Agony had my in­sides con­vuls­ing.

  • De­feat had me slump­ing into a chair.

  • Fear had my body shak­ing.



My ques­tion is, are these sen­tences cor­rect as writ­ten, or should they
be writ­ten like this:





  • Agony had my in­sides con­vulse.

  • De­feat had me slump into a chair.

  • Fear had my body shake.

meaning - What does the "yours" in "yours sincerely" mean?

"Yours" is usually a possessive pronoun with an implicit noun. What is the implicit noun in the case of "yours sincerely"?

objects - Identifying the subject: Should ‘who’ or ‘whom’ be used here?

Now, while I think I have come to terms with 'who' and 'whom', I read an article from Oxford Dictionaries that confused me: https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/usage/who-or-whom



This article states that 'the elderly woman' and 'journalists' are the subjects of these two sentences, and thus, 'who' should be used instead of 'whom':





✗ He is demanding £5,000 from the elderly woman whom has ruined his life.



✗ Mr Reynolds is highly critical of journalists, whom just use labels to describe him.




However, I believe they are actually the objects of the two sentences. If I were to replace them with pronouns, they would be in the accusative case.



'He is demanding £5,000 from her [the elderly woman].'
'Mr Reynolds is highly critical of them [journalists].'




Because the two nouns would be in the accusative case, shouldn't 'whom' actually be used instead of 'who', despite what Oxford says? I would like to know if I am missing something here.



Thanks in advance!

ambiguity - Present perfect or past simple?




I know the basic rules about using PP and PS (like specified time in the past etc.) but in some cases, it is not clear to me:



I have finished painting. - present perfect, I just announce that.



I have finished painting for today - not sure here? I say that today I will not paint anymore but still I feel PP could be possible. What tense should be here?


Answer



If the function is to identify when you finished painting then you might say
I finished painting today.
I finished painting for today at four.




But if the function is to identify the current state of the painting then you might say
I have finished painting.
I have finished painting for today.



These mean you are in one of the following (respective) states:
finished for good (for the indefinite future, for the current painting job)
finished for today



You could also say
I am finishing up painting for today.



Note that "painting for today" is the job in focus, not "painting (until completed)", so we are talking about entering the the state of "finished for today" rather than "completed painting".


grammaticality - Can “another” be used with plural nouns provided periods or measurements don’t count?

Merriam-Webster says about another the following:




being one more in addition to one or more of the same kind
http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/another





However, I come across such sentences as: “I am giving another three books away”, “give me another 2 flowers”. I think it’s fine to say “give me another twenty minutes” as it is a period of time, but I wonder about “another two books/flowers”. Is it grammatically correct? Another thing which seems to be suspicious is that I can’t find such examples in dictionaries.

Bare infinitive and gerund participle


I saw him kick the stone.




According to my reference book this sentence is grammatically correct even though the verb 'kick' is in present tense while the action has already happened.



If I write like this:





I saw him kicked the stone.




Is this sentence still grammatically correct? Or we must use kick in present tense since the verb saw already clarifies that this is a past action? Or are both right?

Thursday, November 27, 2014

abbreviations - Using 'e.g.' in place of 'for example'

I'm looking at a text that regularly uses "e.g." in place of "for example", such as the following:



"This parallel composition can be transparently split between two cores, allowing, e.g., for faster execution".



(Ignore what the sentence is about. It's bogus and completely made up.)



The use of "e.g." in that sentence sounds really wrong to my ear, but I'm trying to understand why it is so.



I don't find a lot on the topic. I've been searching online, and on stackexchange, for posts that justify why it is or isn't wrong. Most posts and questions ask about the difference between 'i.e.' and 'e.g.', or try to explain the etymology of "e.g.", or present positive examples (e.g., 'use it when enumerating'), but present no examples of wrong usage.




Can anyone explain if the above usage is wrong, and a reputable source that clearly explains why?



Also, is there an appropriate rule of thumb to understand which cases are wrong? I can think of the following: If you cannot remove "e.g.," and the example(s) that follow and obtain a grammatically correct sentence, then it's definitely wrong. However, even if this rule of thumb is correct, it's not complete. For instance, I cannot replace the use of 'for example' at the beginning of this very sentence with 'e.g.'



Near duplicates:





I've left a comment in one of those because the answer agrees with what I say but does not really explain why. However, the answer has already been accepted, and I doubt there would be any activity at this point.

grammar - regarding the use of "them"


"What they refer to as the habit of dreaming by the Aborigines, is not what the Aborigines themselves believe them to be."




"Them" is referring to dreams. Is the use of 'them' in the second part of the sentence grammatically correct since "habit of dreaming" seems singular to me.



"They" is "Westerners"







Note: The quote in the original version of the question had What Europeans . . . rather than What they . . .

indefinite articles - Does one use 'a' or 'an' before the word X-Ray?



I was asking this question on Area 51: "How do I tell if an airport scanner is a X-ray scanner?", but I keep wanting to put an 'an' in front of X-ray because it starts with the 'eh' sound.




So is it 'a' or 'an'?


Answer



Definitely "an". The word X-ray is never pronounced any way other than "exray", and as has been discussed before, the choice of a or an is based solely on pronunciation, regardless of spelling. Since X-ray is pronounced beginning with a vowel, it must be preceded by an.


grammar - "It would be better if you drink/drank all the water"

Which one of the following is grammatically correct?




It would be better if you drink all the water.




It would be better if you drank all the water.




The question is, obviously, about the use of the past tense.

punctuation - How to punctuate a question

So, I'm writing a dialogue and I'm not sure how to punctuate this question.




"So where's the bag, you idiot?"




Would this be the correct way to do this even though the second part isn't a question and is instead referring to a person? Should the question mark go before 'you idiot'?

grammar - What are the effects of the passive voice other than changing emphasis?

As this excellent answer points out, the passive voice can change the emphasis of a sentence from the subject to an object. That seems to be its primary function: this other answer provides an example of how the passive voice is used in academia to draw emphasis away from the author of a paper and towards the paper's findings. However, are there any effects of using the passive voice other than changing the focus of the sentence? If so, what are they?

grammar - Adverb vs. direct object











Consider the following sentences:





  • She went home.


  • He swam yesterday.




Are the words "home" and "yesterday" adverbs or direct objects? Why? They both seem to modify the verb, but they are also both nouns.


Answer




She went home.





"Home" is an adverb in this sentence. The word "went" can't take a direct object because it is an intransitive verb. This distinction is a difficult one to make. The wikitionary page goes more in depth about the use of the word "home" as an adverb.




He swam yesterday.




"Yesterday" is also an adverb. Any time word or expression that describes when something happened is an adverb. This is also the case for locations. Moreover, swam is also an intransitive verb, which cannot take a direct object.


prepositions - Why is it “earn a livelihood at one’s own calling”, not “with/by” one’s own calling?



Both the usage of prepositions and articles are always the biggest headache for non-native English language learners—I think you’ll perhaps experience the same bewilderment when you first face complexity of the usage of prepositions called ‘te-ni-o-ha’ in Japanese language.



I was caught up with an primitive question, why it should be “earn a livelihood at one’s calling,” not “with/by one’s calling,” in the following sentence of the New Yorker’s (May 3rd) article titled “In Prague,” describing the hardship the thinking segment experienced under the Soviet-backed totalitarian Czech regime during 1970s.





Once they had been thrown out of the Writers’ Union, they were forbidden to publish or to teach or to travel or to drive a car or to earn a proper livelihood each at his or her own calling. For good measure, their children, the children of the thinking segment of the population, were forbidden to attend academic high schools.




As the text is from Philip Roth who received the Literary Service Award at the PEN Gala recently, it should be infallible.



But I as an English language novice tend to associate the preposition “at” with a speciffic working place rather than generic profession and job. Do we have to say “I earn my livelihood at my calling (writer’s/sales/guardsman’s job),” and no choice of other prepositions?


Answer



English prepositions are often just idiomatic and not necessarily meaningful. Sometimes it's possible to use two or three different prepositions in a particular phrase, e.g., I live near my parents, I live close to my parents, I live by my parents, I live next to my parents, all of which mean that I live not far from my parents' dwelling, but don't live in the same house or apartment as they do.



Google Ngrams shows that neither at my calling nor by my calling is as popular now (close to zero) as it was 150 years ago.




Roth's sentence is perfectly idiomatic. It would sound strange to me with by instead of at. But the word calling sounds a bit dated or out of order. Most people have a trade, profession, or job these days. Few have a calling, except for clerics.My father would have said "I'm an electrician by trade"; I would say "I'm an editor by profession"; Jerry Falwell would have said "I'm a minister of the Gospel by calling".



No writer's English is infallible: everybody makes mistakes, even the best of the best. But in this case, Roth's English is impeccable.


Wednesday, November 26, 2014

grammar - "have been" versus "had been" in questions











"I can tell that he's not English, but I wouldn't had been able to tell that he's french if you didn't tell me first"



it was told me that this kind of usage is wrong, and that I should have used "I wouldn't have been able to tell that"



When should I use "had been" and when "have been"?


Answer




"have been" is the past perfect tense. It refers to an event in the past, from the perspective of the present. For instance, "[At some point before NOW] I have been told he's French".



"had been" is the pluperfect tense. You'd use it when talking about an event in the past that was before some other point in the past, say "Before I met him, I had been told he's French".



However, in your case it's actually a different beast, the conditional perfect tense. "would have been" is used whenever there's a condition that existed in the past, whether or not you'd ordinarily use "have been" or "had been".



Basically, the fact you're using a condition overrides the fact that you'd ordinarily use the pluperfect.


time - Present Perfect or simple past?



A student has written:




Still, I have already been aware of most of the information even
before watching the video.





It doesn't feel right and I would normally use a past simple here. I'm on my two hundredth script and losing my ability to reason, or to adequately explain to myself why it should be past simple (I think it's 'before' as this puts the time as completed, so he can't use the present perfect notion of unfinished time). What I need to know is:




  1. Should it be simple past of present perfect here, or doesn't it matter?

  2. Why/why not?



All help gratefully received.


Answer



As Barrie and Elf said, your intuition is correct. The basis of the error is a subtle one, as with most matters affecting simple past versus present perfect in English, but maybe you can it explain it to the student along the following lines (which you’ll need to adapt to whatever you’ve told them about this tense).





  1. The context doesn’t justify an experiential use of the present perfect. These uses make good answers to Have you ever questions (Have you ever swum with dolphins? seen a shark when surfing? eaten snake?). If I ask you, in a deposition, say, Have you ever been aware of the contents of an 43-101 report before reading it?, you could answer: Yes, I've been aware of the information the report contained even before reading it, meaning that at some vague point in the past you had awareness prior to reading. That is crucially different from what your student wants to say: that (s)he was aware at a specific time, just before a particular showing of a film.

  2. Nor is a resultant state perfect (present perfect of result) appropriate. When these combine with predicates that denote nonpunctual events (know the answer, believe the rumour, study French; as opposed to punctual burst the balloon, reach the summit), they usually mark the onset of the attained state (I’ve known the answer for five minutes / since you walked in the door), or indicate overlapping intervals (I’ve known the answer for the whole time you’ve been talking). They are infelicitous with phrases the mark other time points (e.g., the endpoint I’ve known the answer until you walked in, or a midpoint, Having figured it out five minutes ago, I’ve known the answer when you started explaining). The problem with the student’s sentence is that, in I have been aware before watching, the before clause highlights that awareness preceded watching, so an overlap reading is inappropriate and an onset reading is impossible.



The basic idea is, run through the list of uses you’ve given your students for present perfect and explain why none is apt here.


Between Present Perfect and Simple Past, which tense indicates a finished action?




When one uses simple past tense for some action, does it imply that the action is complete?



For instance, when you say “I wrote my article yesterday,” does this imply that at this moment you have a finished article or not? So it’s




I wrote a bit of my article yesterday, but I still have to finish it.




vs.





I started and finished writing my article yesterday and now I have a finished work, so I can publish it.




What about present perfect? Does it imply completeness? If you say “I have watched this film,” does this mean that you have actually watched it from start to end?



If both these tenses imply that the action was completed, do I have to use past continuous to emphasize the incompleteness of action? For instance, “I was watching this film,” so that the implied meaning is that I started watching it, but it’s not certain that I finished it.


Answer





when you say “I wrote my article yesterday,” does this imply that at this moment you have a finished article or not?




Yes, you finished it. Otherwise, as you say, you would say something like "I started to write my article yesterday". In that case, 'started to write' has finished even if the article hasn't.




What about present perfect? Does it imply completeness?




No, it doesn't. Present Perfect is 'until now' or 'relevant now'. It says nothing about what happens after now, though context might. For example:




"I have worked in that factory" implies (by using 'that') that you no longer work there. Maybe somebody is asking you what is inside, and you have relevant knowledge because you have worked inside the building.



"I have worked in this factory for ten years", but this is your last day. You have worked here until now.



"I have worked in this factory for ten years", so you know where the toilets are and don't need telling. Unless you get sacked you will continue to work here.




do I have to use past continuous to emphasize the incompleteness of action?





If the action is incomplete, you use present continuous. Past continuous is for a finished action.



In your example “I was watching this film”, the action - the watching - is complete. You are not watching it any more. Whether you completed the film or not doesn't really come into it, as the film is not the action.


possessives - How to refer to a collection of paintings by a particular artist?




For example, suppose that in an art museum a tour guide wants to refer to a room that displays paintings from Pablo Picasso, so he says,



"This room has the Picasso's."



Would this be correct? Or should it be,



"This room has the Picassos."


Answer



A painting by Pablo Picasso can be referred to as a Picasso, but the plural would be Picassos:





"Russians have money,” he went on. “Art dealers from all over world are
now asking me to buy Picassos, other Impressionists. I prefer
Renaissance, Caravaggio. But I do not buy them. I’d rather invest in
my freedom, rather than in my walls."




Picasso's is the possessive:





Pablo Picasso's paintings are sometimes called Picassos.




Picasso's would also be the possessive of the painting:




The Picasso's texture confirmed its authenticity.





www.newyorker.com


word choice - "Speak to" vs. "Speak with"



What are the differences between these two phrasal verbs and what are the best situations to use each?


Answer



These two are more or less equivalent. They can both be used for the situation where A and B speak to each other. "Speak to" can also be used for the situation where A talks and B listens without speaking.


Tuesday, November 25, 2014

punctuation - AE/Scientific language: When to use a comma before "which"

I'm struggling with the question whether to put a comma before "which" in many instances. While the general rule is "if the content after which is necessary to understand the rest of the sentence, put no comma" and "if the content is merely unimportant/additional information, put a comma", I often fail at applying this rule to my sentences.



Here are a few examples:





Shoaling behavior also holds a crucial role in the life of juvenile animals[X] which form shoals throughout the juvenile phase



(mechanoreception[X] which occurs through highly sensitive inner ears or neuromasts)



This greatly over- or underestimates the degree of phenotypic plasticity[X] which may lead to incorrect conclusions regarding the evolutionary consequences of phenotypic plasticity



Juveniles have great developmental freedom[X] which reduces the costs of being plastic



An example for the latter category are sexual ornaments[X] which are costly




Signal interpretation is modified by both past environments and the environment the signal is perceived in[X] which includes not only the external but also the internal environment



Animals actively searching for a partner are more conspicuous to predators[X] which makes mate choice a costly process.




Thanks for your help!

pronunciation - Does the 18th century contraction "on't" survive phonologically in English today?



The February 18th-24th edition of The Economist has an article titled "Neurons v free will" in which the author, Anthony Gottlieb begins by quoting Dr. Johnson's statement about free will:





"Sir ... we know our will is free, and there's an end on't."




Gottlieb echoes the archaism (?) in the last paragraph of his article:




Stepping back from investigations of the brain to look at our actions in the context of everyday life isn't quite the clincher that Dr Johnson would have liked. But it is a good beginning on't."




Clearly the writer uses the contraction on't here as part of a stylistic bookend to the opening quote. Just as clearly, though, the apostrophe was meant in print to indicate the spoken suppression of an unstressed syllable: ont vs. on it.




From Google NGrams I observe that the printed use of the contraction was never great and is in fact dying out, although it has maintained a surprising persistence nonetheless, waiting till the last 30 years or so before flatlining completely.



Use of on't vs. on it in English



Still, the large disparity could be due to other factors, such as the arguable preference of book editors and writers to favor spelling out clearly the words involved in many phonological contractions. Consider how often a phrase that is pronounced it was raining cats 'n' dogs is rendered in print as it was raining cats and dogs. Even more to the point, words ending in -ing are normally printed with the final g but often spoken without it: something's going on is often heard as somethin's goin' on.



My question, mainly to speakers of British English since I have never heard the contraction used in the U.S., is whether this phonological "short'nin'" survives in the speech of any British dialect today. Can anyone put an end on't for me?


Answer



Most likely "on't" is just an abbreviation for the usual pronunciation of "on it", namely

/'ɔnət/.



English writers just don't seem to feel any necessity to have a written contraction for "on it" any more, is all.


Using Present Perfect for past experiences



Today I saw this quote from Michael Jordan, and the usage of Present Perfect in all of his past failed experiences got my attention:



enter image description here




I’ve missed more than 9000 shots in my career. I’ve lost almost 300 games. 26 times, I’ve been trusted to take the game winning shot and missed. I’ve failed over and over and over again in my life. And that is why I succeed.





I cannot see why is it being used here; any help regarding its use?


Answer



The usage of the Present Perfect is perfectly good here.



Had it been the alternative Past Simple that some people might prefer:



"I missed... I lost... I was trusted and missed... I failed..."



Then all the past experiences being mentioned would be totally detached from where MJ was at the time of speaking. In short, all his past experiences would hold little relevance to where he's gotten.




On the other hand, as it appears in the quote:



"I've missed... I've lost... I've been trusted and missed... I've failed..."



Everything connects, affects, and even builds up to the point when he says: "This is why I succeed."



P.S. This would be true whether MJ was still playing or already retired at the time of the quote. In the last sentence, he could be talking about his success specifically in basketball, a recently fulfilled career, or life in general


translation - Shortest question to ask when you want to know whether the one you talk to is the eldest, second, third...or youngest child in his/her family.

I’ve always been asked by my Filipino friends how I should say the Filipino question “Pang-ilan ka sa magkakapatid?” in English.



You ask that question when you want to know whether someone is the eldest, second, third...or youngest child in the family. What’s the shortest way to ask such question without necessarily mentioning choices (eldest, second, etc.) as the Filipino question also does not mention the choices?

grammar - A or an before slash phrase? A or an before parenthetical phrase equivalent to slash phrase?






The other question only asks about parenthetical phrases, not slash phrases.



The other question's parenthetical phrase (answer(s) explained that it's not really a parenthetical phrase) is a separate word. Mine is an intra-word parenthetical prefix. That's different!








Extreme votes on a post often indicates that there was a(n) (dis)agreement.







When you see spam on , you should cast a(n) upvote/flag.








The ship traveled across a(n) sea/ocean.




The first example's parenthetical thingymajigger is equivalent to the slash phrase "agreement/disagreement."



What's the correct singular indefinite article to use before slash phrase (this/that) and parenthetical phrases ((a)sexual, (de)criminalize)?


Answer




Such constructions are a matter of style, so there is no single "correct" way of dealing with them.



If I refer to The Chicago Manual of Style (17th ed.), 6.95:




Parentheses—stronger than a comma and similar to the dash—are used to set off material from the surrounding text. Like dashes but unlike commas, parentheses can set off text that has no grammatical relationship to the rest of the sentence.




Although I'm somewhat familiar with what you're doing with the parentheses in your examples, I believe that Chicago, at least, would not recommend putting text inside of parentheses that actually does have some kind of grammatical relationship with the rest of a sentence—especially if doing so causes awkwardness.




In general, you should write sentences in such a way that if the parenthetical information were removed, the surrounding text would be completely unaffected. (In other words, the grammar used outside the parentheses should be completely unaffected by the text inside the parentheses.)



As for slashes, here is Chicago, 6.106:




A slash most commonly signifies alternatives. In certain contexts it is a convenient (if somewhat informal) shorthand for or. It is also used for alternative spellings or names. Where one or more of the terms separated by slashes is an open compound, a space before and after the slash can make the text more legible.



      he/she
      his/her
      and/or
      Hercules/Heracles
      Margaret/Meg/Maggie
      World War I / First World War





Although it doesn't specifically mention its stance on grammar around slashes, I suspect Chicago would say that, as they are just shorthand for longer (and more formal) constructions, if their use causes a problem, then use a longer construction instead.






In other words, when such constructions become grammatically awkward, I suspect the "proper" thing to do is to rephrase rather than to look for a specific rule of grammar (which likely doesn't exist).



For example:




Extreme votes on a post often indicated that there was an agreement or disagreement.




When you see spam on , you should case an upvote or flag.



They ship traveled across a sea or ocean.




On the other hand, if you are using a style guide that does say what to do in such circumstances, then follow its advice.


Monday, November 24, 2014

grammatical number - What is the correct possessive for nouns ending in "‑s"?




What is the possessive of a noun ending in ‑s? Are these both right, or is the second one wrong?




  1. the boys' books


  2. the boss' car



Answer



Your example sentences confuse two different problems.




For nouns that are plural (such as "boys"), the possessive is formed in writing by adding an apostrophe after the plural -s. This is pronounced the same as the plural and the singular possessive:




The boys' books [boys' sounds like boys]




For singular nouns that end in -s, the possessive is formed by adding -'s, just as with other nouns. This is pronounced as if the spelling were es:




The boss's car [boss's sounds like bosses]





There is a partial exception for proper names that end in s. These names sometimes form their possessive by simply adding an apostrophe, and without changing their pronunciation:




Confucius' sayings



Jesus' teachings





However, this doesn't apply if the name ends with a letter other than s, even if it's pronounced with an s. These names form their possessive as normal:




Marx's theories




In the opposite case of a name which ends in a silent s, the possessive is usually formed by adding an apostrophe in writing, but the apostrophe causes the silent s to be pronounced:




Camus' novels [the final -s in Camus is not silent here]




grammaticality - Is "no other" + comparative grammatically correct?


There is no other harsher critic than yourself.





I'm really stumped on this one. The more I read it the less correct it sounds. I think the word harsher is making the sentence sound fairly off putting.



Other variations include:




There is no harsher critic other than yourself.





Any help would be greatly appreciated!

Sunday, November 23, 2014

nouns - French Quality Clothes



How can I make the difference in this kind of sentence :



"French Quality Clothes"



Does it mean :





  • Clothes of the well-known "french quality"



or




  • Quality clothes from France




?



And How can I express the 2 without been misunderstood?


Answer



By placing the adjective before the appropriate word.




Quality French clothes -- (Good) quality clothes of French origin.





and




French quality clothes -- Clothes of (the renowned) French quality.



implied subject within a noun clause

I recently came across a sentence in an academic text that was similar in structure to "I eat what is considered healthy." I interpreted the grammar as "what is considered healthy" being a noun clause. Someone then pointed out to me that a clause needs a subject and verb, and "what" should be the subordinator, not the subject.



Can anyone explain this to me? Thanks!

Difference between "saw you" and "have seen you"

What is the difference between the two statements?





  1. I saw you recently

  2. I have seen you recently



Are both the statements correct? If correct, then why?



Explain the difference between specified timing and unspecified timing with examples.

word choice - Correct usage of "which"/"that"










From what I understand the second sentence is correct, and the first is not. What are the rules on using which versus using that?






  1. Instead it produces the above, which simply is a silent error.

  2. Instead it produces the above, that is simply a silent error.



Answer



The notes about when to use which and that reported from the NOAD are the following:





In U.S. English, it is usually recommended that which be employed only for nonrestrictive (or nonessential) clauses: the horse, which is in the paddock, is six years old. (The which clause contains a nonessential fact, noted in passing; the horse would be six years old wherever it was.) A that clause is restrictive (or essential), as it identifies a particular thing: the horse that is in the paddock is six years old (not any horse, but the one in the paddock).




To notice that (in sentences similar to the ones you used as example) which is generally preceded by a comma, and that is generally not preceded by a comma.


punctuation - Proper Apostrophe Usage with Initialisms: CCS' or CCS's?



I work with a company whose name is frequently reduced to an initialism (acronym). Let's say the name is "Cool Computer Systems" (CCS). I am engaged in an ongoing, bloody battle with the marketing department, wherein they insist the following apostrophe use is correct:





Buy CCS' New Product.




Reading that line brings visions of crying 4th grade teachers and librarians to mind. I am quite certain that it should be written:




Buy CCS's New Product.








UPDATE:



The examples are in title case because the sentence is the subject line of an e-mail.






UPDATE:




Their argument is that "Systems" is plural. I say that plurality doesn't matter, because "Systems" is part of the name. The name as a whole should be handled as a singular entity, because the company is, in fact, a single, legal entity. Thus, the possessive form should be written:




The Emperor's clothes



Cool Computer Systems's clothes



CSS's clothes



Answer




According to the Guardian style guide:




The possessive in words and names ending in S normally takes an apostrophe followed by a second S (Jones's, James's), but be guided by pronunciation and use the plural apostrophe where it helps: Mephistopheles', Waters', Hedges' rather than Mephistopheles's, Waters's, Hedges's.




So I would likewise go by pronunciation write it as:




Buy CCS's New Product.





Or rewrite to avoid it the apostrophe altogether.


grammaticality - When should you repeat the same subject in a compound sentence?



I'd like to know when it is required to repeat the pronoun after a clause or an interjection within the same phrase.
For example, which of these two phrases would be considered correct:





  1. I've recently sold my first book, a period drama which I've written years ago, and I have another book optioned.


  2. I've recently sold my first book, a period drama which I've written years ago, and have another book optioned.




Notice the second version doesn’t say I again. Is that still grammatically correct?


Answer



The second option seems better. I would also like to suggest a change. " I've recently sold my first book, a period drama which I wrote years ago, and have another book optioned.
To address your first concern, you can use an additional 'I' , it's not grammatically incorrect. It's just that in English we try to minimise the repetition of the same word in a sentence as much as we can.


syntactic analysis - Sentence construction, adjective position

I need to phrase a title, and I am not sure what the best option is:
Detect visited page without analyzing its features or Detect page visited without analyzing its features

Saturday, November 22, 2014

grammar - "If you don't mind me asking" or "If you don't mind my asking"?





Which one is more appropriate - "If you don't mind me asking" or "If you don't mind my asking"?



I always thought that it was "If you don't mind me asking", but I recently heard "If you don't mind my asking" (more precisely, whilst watching True Detective, I heard "If you don't mind me asking" but the subtitles read "If you don't mind my asking").



Now, the latter makes sense if "asking" is referred to as a noun, but it sounds a little twisted.



Which one is the right one?



Thanks


Answer




You may say either one, though the meaning would slightly differ.




  • "Me asking" is more protocolar with deference for your interlocutor ; it's the usual version.

  • "My asking" - which is also OK - is just excusing your question, not your person expressing it. (I guess we would not use it before a king, even if we don't care of royalty as in the White House & Senate we hear "excuse my asking" in comittee or from the press. In Courts, the bench often shoots "my asking".)


Use of commas in a New Yorker article

In the February 11, 2019 edition of The New Yorker, there is a weird profile of the writer Dan Mallory. Can someone help me explain the grammar of the commas I have bolded below? Why is there a comma after "disdain"? Why the comma before the words "and worked"? Presumably The New Yorker must have its reasons:





As if impatient for advancement, Mallory often used his boss’s office late at night, and worked on her computer. On a few occasions in 2007, after Mallory had announced that he would soon be leaving the company to take up doctoral studies at Oxford, people found plastic cups, filled with urine, in and near Linda Marrow’s office. These registered as messages of disdain, or as territorial marking. Mallory was suspected of responsibility but was not challenged. No similar cups were found after he quit. (Mallory, through a spokesperson, said, “I was not responsible for this.”)


Subject pronoun or object pronoun?

Here is a sentence:





Everyone likes you but her/she.




What should be the correct pronoun? According to me since we are replacing a subject with a pronoun it should be she, but the answer according to my book is her. Could anyone explain the reason for using her in this sentence?

verbs - The first and most well-known example is/are the reserves in the United States








Should the verb be is or are? I would say 'are', but a colleague says 'is'.

word choice - Would it be "Life was" or "Life were" in this Circumstance?

This may be a correct vs. more correct situation.



“If life was simple, we’d never grow.”



I wonder if this should be "were" or "was." "Were" is used for unreal conditionals, so when looking up “if life…” then “were” normally shows up. But I wonder if “was” would actually be correct here because life being simple is a possibility for some and not for others, so there’s duality to the meaning. It could be simple for some and complex for others.

Friday, November 21, 2014

expressions - Confirmation, kindly, please. Phrase "Is this sinking in"?



I appreciate your moderate and attentive treatment to the OPs as always.



A TOEFL textbooks give me this kind of sentence. ( Though in my opinion, since it is in the listening practice section, it sounds a bit abrupt. )



The whole practice is talking about the gene therapies.



Exerpt





At this point of time, there are three types of gene therapy. The first one entails leaving the mutated genes alone, but placing normal genes inside a cell and activating them. The second type involves stopping gene abnormality by binding a specific gene sequence to the abnormal gene sequence. The final type is a so-called gene operation, as it involves away a particular portion of DNA. Lastly, I'd like to explain the risk involving in gene therapy. As a matter of fact, it is no simple task to manually place a gene inside a deceased cell from the outside. For this reason, it is necessary to weigh the risk of side effects during and after treatment, is this sinking in?




Now, here, please confirm, the last phrase will drop on the definition of the below by Merriam Unabridged.



enter image description here



Assuming, the narrator is confirming the listeners if the recognition of the risks entailed by the gene treatment are enough absorbed by the listeners' minds. Am I correct here?




Thank you for your always moderate supports.


Answer



sink in TFD idiom





  1. Fig. [for knowledge] to be understood.





Yes you are correct:



The narrator is confirming that the listeners are absorbing the information concerning gene therapy.


grammar - Why use "an" before a word that starts with a "L"




In this document, it says:



An LTI (Linear, Time-Invariant) system, in a simplified sense, will exhibit two behaviors




Can someone explain why the use of "An" instead "a" is correct here?


Answer



The "a" v. "an" distinction is phonetically based. If you say L T I, when you pronounce the letter L is pronounced "el" (as in the proper name "Eleanor") which starts with a vowel.



If the acronym had been dispensed with, you would have used "A" instead.


grammar - What does "it" refer to in "it's raining"?



I wanted to leave the question title as is so as not to take away from my amusement :).



Anyway,




It's raining.





What is raining? Is it the sky? The clouds? The weather? The rain? What is "it"? Any historical insights on the statement?


Answer



Definitions for it in my Webster's 3rd New International Dictionary include:




2a used as an expletive subject of an
impersonal verb that expresses a
simple condition or an action without
implied reference to an agent about
the weather ... or time.





It is raining or It is two o'clock are examples of 2a.




2b used as an expletive subject in other statements or questions having
an undefined subject




If it hadn't been for your help, I couldn't have finished in time is an example of 2b.





3a used as an anticipatory subject of a verb whose logical subject is
another word or phrase or clause




It is I who have the answer to the question is an example of 3a.


How to choose verb after "there" in beginning of sentence?

Cambridge "Advanced Grammar in Use" provides following rule in Unit 95C:




If the noun phrase consists of two or more nouns in a list, we use a singular
verb if the first noun is singular or uncountable, and a plural verb if the
first noun is plural:





  • When I opened the fridge there was only a bottle of milk, some eggs, and
    butter.

  • When I opened the fridge there were only some eggs, a bottle of milk, and
    butter.




But Grammar Girl in episode 278 Oddness When You Start a Sentence with
"There Is"
gives completely different explanation:





A listener reader named Joe wants to know whether he should say, "There is a
couch and a coffee table in the room," or "There are a couch and a coffee table
in the room."



...



It's a compound subject since it has two nouns connected by the word "and,"
which makes it plural ... Now that you know the subject is "a couch and a

coffee table" and that it's plural, it's easy to choose the right verb:
"are."




I'm somewhat confused by these contradictory rules. Could someone explain what I'm missing here?

Object of subordinate clause

Take the following sentence:




For all work-shifts of any given day, except for the last one, the following constraints are set forth.




Does the subordinate clause except for the last one refer to work-shift or to day?

Thursday, November 20, 2014

grammatical number - Is a music band a singular or a collective entity, grammatically speaking?


Duplicate:
Is the usage of “are” correct when referring to a team/group/band?







What is correct to say?




Korn* is a great band




OR





Korn* are a great band.




(* You can replace your favourite band's name here)



Of course everybody there is no doubt about the following sentences:




The Beatles are a great band




Led Zeppelin is a great band




But with certain kinds of names, the situation becomes difficult.




Metallica are a great band




OR





Metallica is a great band




Is there any consensus on this matter?

Question on indefinite article (Part 2)



when it comes to an English, article really trips me up so I ask another question regarding article(definite/indefinite).
I was studying English grammar and ran into below sentence:



"Make sure the indefinite pronouns and verbs agree in number"




hmmmmm number.. is a noun.. and it's countable(????)



I expected this to be "in a number".
Shall I think that because pronouns and verbs are plural, this is describing more than 1? and there for no article was used?



Based on assumption, is below statement correct?



"Make sure the indefinite pronoun and verb agree in a number" ?



Also, can someone please recommend some site or grammar book best suited to describe all this? (Most grammar book that I saw does not go deep into article(complex case)).

Also, do typical native english speaker know noun is countable vs none countable in real live dialog? I don't understand how this works.



Many thanks in advance!


Answer



It's easy to get tripped up with definite and indefinite articles.



In this case the word "number" is a linguistic term, or a characteristic or a property of something. If you use the word "color" or "beauty" as generic properties in the same way you might say:




  • "Make sure the door and the wall agree in color." or


  • "Make sure the house and garden are alike in beauty."

  • "The rhinoceros and the lion are similar in ferocity."



You would not say "in a color" or "in a beauty" or "in a ferocity".



In the matter of "number" (i.e. is it plural or singular), you are also dealing with a characteristic or property, and not a concrete object.


Wednesday, November 19, 2014

Verb + to infinitive or Verb + ...ing

Is there a general rule whether to use the Verb + to infinitive or the Verb + ...ing format?



There are cases in which I can't decide which one to use.
Like:
-They can't afford to go out very often.
-They can't afford going out very often.

Or:
-I don't mind to wait.
-I don't mind waiting.
Or:
-It was a nice day, so we decided to go for a walk.
-It was a nice day, so we decided going for a walk.

What are the contraction rules for noun such as Bob, tickets, concert, etc?

Ok, Here is the tricky ones.



Googling "The concert's sold out" returns no result, whereas googling "The concert was sold out" returns a lot of result.




Also, I don't see anyone say "the tickets're sold out" but most people say "the tickets were sold out", so "were" in this case can not be contracted.



Also, "Bob is a dog" could become "Bob's a dog" but then people may confused because it could mean "Bob has a dog".



What are the contraction rules for noun such as Bob, tickets, concert, etc?

Tuesday, November 18, 2014

Does the indefinite article "an" apply to vowel sounds from foreign languages?

When adding an indefinite article to English nouns, you either select a or an depending on the sound of the first letter of the noun that it precedes.



In some languages vowel sounds occur that do not exist in the English language, like ui in Dutch or ы in Russian. I know Russian doesn't have any words starting with ы, but I would still need an article if I discuss a/an ы vowel.




If I use a foreign noun in English language, like when I explain this word in English, does "an" only occur for vowel sounds that also exist in English, or does "an" apply to all vowels, regardless of its existence in English?



For example, which of the following is correct:
- A uitzondering is an exception.
- An uitzondering is an exception.

conversation - Is it better to write 'I' or 'Me' for the name of a speaker in a dialogue?

What should I choose when I write a conversation? Should I write like this?




I: How are you?



John: Fine.





or like this?




Me: How are you?



John: Fine.


adverbs - Can a preposition have the form of superlative?





They had almost reached the door when a voice spoke from the chair
nearest them, "I can't believe you're going to do this.”




I guess nearest is at the place of preposition. Can a preposition have the form of superlative?


Answer



Near is a bit of an unusual 'frozen' word. It was originally the comparative form of nigh (from OE nior). The terms nearer and nearest came later as speakers reinterpreted near as a positive form.




In addition near is rather vague with respect to its word class. The OED Online at near, adv.2 (and prep.2) notes the "difficulty of distinguishing the adjectival, adverbial, and prepositional or quasi-prepositional uses" of the word.



Regarding the comparative and superlative "prepositional" uses, the OED (ibid.) says:




When the noun or noun phrase is the direct complement of near , this
acquires practically the force of a preposition, but differs from true
prepositions in having comparative and superlative forms
.





...(emphasis mine) which is exactly the case here. In short, it looks like a preposition, but it's a sneaky adverb.






Also, at least in etymological origin, the to in "near/-er/-est to them" was actually a later addition to the idiom from Middle English, so it's not well-motivated to regard "near them" as a to-deletion as opposed to retention of an earlier form.




Old Icelandic nær (like Old English nēar ) might be used either alone
or with a noun complement in the dative case. Both usages were adopted
in Middle English, and a further construction introduced by the use

of to before the noun
.



Monday, November 17, 2014

tenses - I received an email saying documents are /were

I received an email saying that the documents are/were being processed.



Which is correct? Are or were?

phrases - Had come to know? Is that correct grammar/English?




I am in the process of writing a speech about my experiences of being homeless, and I have run into a situation in which my advisor's opinion of the proper grammar/phrasing of a sentence and my own disagree. Here is the sentence as I have it written:



**During my period of homelessness, I had come to know a great community drop-in center and food shelf, [...] **
(name of organization removed)



He would like for me to say "During my period of homelessness, I got to know a great community drop-in center and food shelf," [...]



To me, "got to know" sounds very "urban dictionary" and unrefined. I realize it is technically proper English, but I'd like a more dignified way of saying it. Is my way technically incorrect? I have no problem with using archaic language in conversation, but I want to make sure it is correct grammar before I insist it be my way. I am torn as to if it needs to be "I came to know" to be properly past tense, or if I can use "had come to know" in this case. "Had come to know" sounds much more formal to me, and I am hoping it is correct.


Answer



"I came to know" is correct, as is "I got to know."




The past perfect tense would be superfluous here. Too much of a good thing.


Caveats of punctuation of nested quotes



I've found "How to punctuate a quote within a quote?" where the correct punctuation for the given example of nested quotes was:




“He leaned close to me, and said in a gravely and drunken voice, ‘It’s not easy.’”




This shows the obvious point of not doubling the full stop, and having it contracted to the end of the sentence inside the quote.




The question has been closed despite dealing with a matter not answered in any linked to questions (they were either about punctuation within normal quotes or about double quoting but not about both at the same time) - though I understand it might be thought to be obvious if the intuitive combination is the correct one. Unfortunately in my case I really suspect "intuitive" is incorrect.



"It’s not easy" is a sentence and so, a full stop comes at its end naturally. Now, is the same rule true if we use quotation marks for other purposes?



Is the below correct?




“Why should I ever hear about this... ‘agency?’”





‘agency’ is quoted for being an euphemism here. Normally the quote mark belongs to the outer question. Is pulling it inside ‘’ correct or should it go between and ?



Next, comes a matter of how to contract multiple conflicting ending punctuation marks. The below example is most likely incorrect, but how would one properly punctuate:




He screwed his eyebrows, and asked, "Are you sure you heard 'Stop!'?".




If the various quote levels contain sentences that require different punctuation at respective ends, how does one reconcile them?



Answer



In your first query, the question mark clearly does not belong to the euphemism, so it should not appear inside its quotes:




“Why should I ever hear about this... ‘agency’?”




In your second query, you can dispense with the exclamation mark. While that does go with the word Stop, it isn’t heard and doesn’t need to be quoted. And the final full stop isn’t needed either — you’ve already conceded that right at the start.





He screwed his eyebrows, and asked, “Are you sure you heard ‘Stop’?”




Punctuation is only there to assist understanding. Too much clouds the meaning because although it might be strictly correct, it requires working out! Use enough to make the meaning clear without undue effort sorting through it all.


grammar - Negative questions: “No, I don’t” or "Yes, I don't"?

I’m an English teacher in Japan. Recently I ran into quite a conundrum, which I’m sure many others have struggled with. I was talking to one of my students in the presence of my boss and something my student said gave me the impression he hadn’t seen a particular movie. I then asked him, “So you haven’t seen the movie?” He responded, “No, I haven’t.” At this, I corrected him, saying he should say, “Yes, I haven’t.” My boss took issue with and said this is the number one thing that Japanese students learning English apparently trip up on, and traditionally they would be upset if I teach this kind of thing, because what they learned in school is that they should say, “No, I haven’t” in all cases. He has been riding me to find the answer for myself as to whether this is true or not, and while I’ve looked around online and found opinions, I can’t find anything “official”. And what bothers me is responding to a question such as “Have you not seen it” with “No, I haven’t” seems illogical to me, because then it sounds like it would be a double-negative; I’m asking if he has NOT seen the movie, so shouldn’t his answer be “YES, I haven’t seen it?” By saying “no“, to me it sounds like he would be saying, “No, I haven’t not seen it”, which would mean he has.



Also, the other night, my boss posed the example question on the board for me, “Do you not like it?”. Again, I would naturally think it should be, “Yes, I don’t” or “No, I do”, because I’d be affirming that question one way or the other.



He also showed me a place in a textbook we use with a question like “Don’t you like it” and the answer was “No, I don’t” or “Yes, I do”. This makes sense to me because the question is essentially saying, “I think you like it, right”, but I’d using a negative. Although when I think about it, why does this seem normal to me but it seems strange to me to say “Yes, I do” or “No, I don’t” to something like “Do you NOT like it”.



This thread seems to suggest I’m right: Proper yes/no answer to a question posed in negative form
My mom, who is really good with Grammar, also agreed with the responses in that thread. But I feel like I need something more official and concrete.




So could anyone tell me for sure what the right way is and if possible give me an official source, like a dictionary of sorts or something? Thanks a lot.

articles - Why is it: "A Unicorn"





Why is it a unicorn instead of an unicorn. Unicorn starts with a vowel and so shouldn't it be an?


Answer



The article(a/an) that precedes a word is largely dependent on the way the first syllable of that word is pronounced, though many people follow the rule that words beginning with vowels must be preceded by 'an' and words beginning with consonants must be preceded by 'a'.



Here, unicorn begins with the vowel 'u' but it's pronounced more or less like 'yoo'. 'Unicorn' begins with a consonant sound, so we use 'a' before it.



Some other examples are: a user, an honour, a university, a European.


grammar - When is "to" a preposition and when the infinitive marker?



  • I want to see you.

  • I look forward to seeing you.





How can one say "to" in the first sentence is an infinitive marker and in the second sentence a preposition when we are given just the following two sentences and are asked to fill in the blanks?





  • I want to ____(see/seeing) you.

  • I look forward to __(see/seeing) you.


adjectives - the number of boys in the class is fewer than that of girls- correct or not?

The number of boys- countable or uncountable? I'm confused with this sir.

grammatical number - Is the word "data" now considered singular? If so, what about "datum"?



I know that the singular of data is datum. I know that data is a plural.



However, common usage of the word "data" suggests it is used as a "collection of data".





Here is [the collection of] data.




In which case, is the word data now a singular again, or still the plural? If so, what is the correct use of the word data and datum now?


Answer



There are two conflicting usages. For example, a Google search for "the data suggest" returns 10,000,000 results, but a search for "the data suggests" still returns almost 2,000,000 hits.



Wiktionary says:





data uncountable or plural noun
1. Plural form of datum: pieces of information.
2. (uncountable, collectively) information.
3. A collection of object-units that are distinct from one another.



Usage notes



This word is more often used as an uncountable noun with a singular verb than as a plural noun, with singular datum.




Merriam-Webster says:





Definition



1: factual information (as measurements or statistics) used as a basis for reasoning, discussion, or calculation is plentiful and easily available — H. A. Gleason, Jr.> have been published — N. H. Jacoby>



[...]



Usage Discussion




Data leads a life of its own quite independent of datum, of which it was originally the plural. It occurs in two constructions: as a plural noun (like earnings), taking a plural verb and plural modifiers (as these, many, a few) but not cardinal numbers, and serving as a referent for plural pronouns; and as an abstract mass noun (like information), taking a singular verb and singular modifiers (as this, much, little), and being referred to by a singular pronoun. Both constructions are standard. The plural construction is more common in print, perhaps because the house style of some publishers mandates it.




Emphasis mine.


Saturday, November 15, 2014

verbs - The difference between "take" and "last"

We say: "the meeting will last two hours". But we say: "how long does the flight take?"
Please let me know the difference between last and take and when we should use each.

Friday, November 14, 2014

possessives - What is the correct way to possessivize (if that's a word) a compound noun?











When forming the possessive of a compound noun, does one add "'s" to both or just one of the nouns?




For example,




Jim's and Huck's raft




or





Jim and Huck's raft



Answer



The latter is correct:




Jim and Huck's raft.



pronouns - "Angela was reading to Frank and I" vs. "...to Frank and me." Which is correct?

I stated the following:




Angela was reading to Frank and I.




Someone corrected me, stating




"Frank and me"





Which is right?

sentence patterns - Framing a question whose answer is an ordinal number





I am the third daughter (or son) of my parents.
OR
I am the third child of my parents




How should a question that is answered with the above sentences be framed?


Answer



'Among your sisters, where do you fall with respect to birth order?'



Is that what you're looking for?



Thursday, November 13, 2014

sentence - Answering questions with a negation at the end

How are you supposed to answer a question like this (assuming you're from Minnesota)?





You are a Minnesotan, no?




Are you supposed to give the same answer as your answer to this question or give the opposite answer?




You are a Minnesotan, yes?


Does pronouncing an initialism make it an acronym?



One definition of an acronym is:




An abbreviation formed by (usually initial) letters taken from a word or series of words, that is itself pronounced as a word, such as RAM, radar, or scuba; sometimes contrasted with initialism.




An initialism is:





A term formed from the initial letter or letters of several words or parts of words, but which is itself pronounced letter by letter.




If I pronounce an initialism, as a word, and not just as letters, does that 'make' it an acronym?


Answer



If you look at the third definition of acronym, it directly addresses your question. BBC is an acronym, regardless of whether it is pronounced as letters or as a word. RAM (random access memory) is an acronym whether it is pronounced ram or are-aye-em.



SUPPLEMENT




There is a controversy as to whether initialisms are a subset of acronyms or a distinct class of terms.



Several dictionaries seem to restrict acronyms to those shortened forms that can be pronounced as a word. See, e.g., Oxford Online, Collins, and American Heritage.



Others include initialisms as a form of acronym. See, e.g., the OED, Merriam-Webster and Websters New World. Wikipedia has an article on acrnoyms which notes a difference of opinion as to whether initialisms should be included, and then proceeds within the article to include them. It also notes that there are a number of forms that do not neatly fit into either category, such as JPEG (pronounced jay-peg) and AAA (usually pronounced Triple A).



There is also the interesting evolution of an acronym found in the abbreviation for Standard Oil. It began with SO, a clear initialism, which them morphed to ESSO, a classic acronym. (The company has since become EXXON which does not seem to stand for anthing.


Wednesday, November 12, 2014

word choice - "Opt Out" or "Opt-Out"




I've seen "opt out" used in some places and "opt-out" in others. Both seem to be used in the same way - to remove one's self from something. I'm not able to find any official sources that suggest which is correct.



Which is proper?




Research:



I Googled for several variations of "opt out vs opt-out". I was unable to find any articles or pages that directly discussed the differences between the two. The search results all seemed to define one of the phrases or the other in very similar terms (the difference was still not clear).



I checked www.dictionary.com. I was only able to find a definition for "opt out", not a version for "opt-out". The definition I did find was similar to the definitions above.



I searched the English Language & Usage (this) site for the phrases "opt out" and "opt-out" but was unable to find a question that answered the above. The questions mostly seemed to compare "opt out" or "opt-out" to another similar word ("withdraw" for example).


Answer



"Opt out" without the hyphen would be taken as a verb--that is, to opt out or remove oneself from something.





I've opted out of attending the conference.




"Opt-out" with the hyphen may be used as a compound adjective:




Be sure to make a decision before the opt-out period





Where "opt-out" here describes the period.


questions - Is "Whom did you give the book?" ungrammatical?




You gave him the book.                       (1)





Based on the sentence (1),
it seems to me that the following form of question is possible:




Whom did you give the book?            (2)




instead of





To whom did you give the book?       (3)




since him is an object of the verb "give".



I know (2) is rare. But, is (2) ungrammatical?


Answer



Saying "Whom did you give the book?" is rare seems to me an understatement; I haven't found any actual examples of sentences like this. (As far as I know, who can always be used instead of whom, so I'm treating "Who did you give the book" the same way in this answer.) Despite the rarity, I have found conflicting statements from grammar experts about whether it is definitely ungrammatical (which may reflect a similar variance in native speakers' intuitions.) All of them agree that is is at the very least infelicitous for many speakers.



As ChongDogMillionare said, the fact that we can say





You gave him the book.




(using a noun phrase "him") as well as




You gave the book to him





(using a prepositional phrase "to him") is called dative alternation. We can use the noun phrase form in some complex sentences, such as passives (He was given the book) and interrogative sentences where the direct object is fronted (What did you give him?).



So, your question is basically: can we use the noun phrase variant in an interrogative sentence with a fronted indirect object? (Whom did you give the book?)



My intuition is that you can't. But I don't know why not! In the comments, Ben Voight gave an example sentence You gave whom the book? and suggested it was grammatical. I don't know if I agree; it sounds awkward to me, but I don't know if that means it's ungrammatical. If it is grammatical, and Whom did you give the book? isn't, then the issue must be with the fronting specifically. There are other syntactic differences between questions with fronting/wh-movement and those with wh-in-situ, like the use of an auxiliary (did in this case).



Here is a relevant quotation that says the sentence is ungrammatical for this reason:





Wh-movement distinguishes between direct and indirect object: *Who did
you give a book?; What did you give John?




(Essays on Anaphora, by H. Lasnik)



It's a convention in linguistics to use a preceding asterisk to mark a sentence as ungrammatical. But I also found this:




Wh-movement of the indirect object from the V NP NP frame is generally

regarded as infelicitous. Fodor (1978) explains this with reference to
a processing restriction she terms the XX Extraction Constraint. In
parsing a string in which the indirect object has Wh-moved, the parser
would have difficulty detecting the gap since its expectation that an
NP will follow the verb is in fact met by the direct object NP. [...]



?Who will the children show the new toy?




("Prior Linguistic Knowledge and the Conservatism of the Learning Procedure: Grammaticality Judgements of Unilingual and Multilingual Speakers", by Helmut Zobl)




The wording here doesn't seem quite as strong ("infelicitous") and a question mark is used, which indicates less certainty that it is ungrammatical than an asterisk would.



And here is another quotation that implies that some speakers find it grammatical, even though many others don't:




Testing superiority effects in English double object constructions is
also tricky, since for many speakers wh-movement of indirect objects
is impossible even if the indirect object is the only wh-element.
However, for speakers that do allow wh-extraction of indirect objects,

the predicted contrast does appear to hold, as shown in (85a-b).



(85) a. ?? Whomi did John give ti what?

b.* Whati did John give whom ti?




(Symmetry in Syntax: Merge, Move, and Labels, by Barbara Citko)



Here, ti represents an imperceptible trace left behind before the indirect or direct object is moved.




I found a source that points to some further discussion:




Another asymmetry[...] has often been noticed in the literature on
double object constructions (cf. Hudson, 1992; Larson, 1988; Oehrle,
1976):



(11) a. What did she send her sister t?

b. ?*Who did she send t a book?

c. Her sister was sent t a book.


d. ?*A book was sent her sister t.



[...]Wh-Movement can extract the direct object in a double object construction, whereas NP movement can extract the indirect object. Neither of these processes is problematic. However, the reverse pattern of extractions is problematic for many speakers (cf. Hudson, 1992, who discusses variability in judgements here.)




("Constraints on Argument Structure," by Kenneth Hale, Samuel J. Keyser, in Syntactic Theory and First Language Acquisition: Cross-linguistic perspectives Vol. 1 Heads, Projections, and Learnability by Barbara Lust, Margarita Suñer, John Whitman)



I found a PDF of the relevant paper by Hudson, "So-called “double objects” and grammatical relations."



I also found an interesting example sentence that seems similar but is treated as grammatical, although it has an additional interrogative word:





Who did you give what at Christmas?




(Pragmatic Syntax, by Jieun Kiaer)






Supplement:




Here are some examples I found on Google Books of "whom" being fronted like this without an accompanying preposition: Founding the Fatimid State: The Rise of an Early Islamic Empire, by Hamid Haji; The Coronation, by Thomas Capps; Folk-tales of Salishan and Sahaptin tribes, by F. Boas; Rainbow Six, by Tom Clancy; "South Cove Community Health Center Newsletter," July 2011.