I'm puzzled by an example given in Garner's Modern English Usage illustrating correct use of the subjunctive mood. In this example, Garner offers both the incorrect and the correct usage: "But the truth is, if it wasn't [read hadn't been] for a last-minute infusion of cash by an out-of-state lobbying group, the initiative would not have even garnered enough signatures to qualify for the ballot."
Is hadn't been used here because of some grammatical relationship with would not have later in the sentence? I would have expected weren't to replace wasn't here (not hadn't been).
Many thanks for any insight.
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