Tuesday, June 3, 2014

grammar - What (if any) is the proper hyphenation for the phrase "it's all too easy"?




Are any of the following correct?





It's all too-easy
It's all-too-easy
It's all too easy




Explanation/citations would be greatly appreciated


Answer



There is no need to hyphenate the phrase unless it is used either as a compound noun or as a compound adjective.



As a compound noun, it is likely to be a nickname, in which case, capitalise the initial letters:






  • It's All-Too-Easy (as in names such as John-Paul, or Maria-Luisa)

  • It's 'All Too Easy' (as a nickname) and It's All Too Easy (as a non-hyphenated name) would both also be acceptable.



As a compound adjective, it would need a determiner before it, e.g.,





  • It's the all-too-easy solution to all our problems. Don't you believe it.



ADDITION:



In the plural, eg 'all-too-easy solutions' no determiner is needed, as Kris commented, below.


articles - Is it necessary to use "the" multiple times?



It seems that the question has eventually become a series of questions....







An example goes as:




The 1st and (the) 2nd paragraphs of the article are extremely long.




Another example:





What are the situation, (the) task and (the) result of your story?




Is it necessary to use the in ()?


Answer



Generally, repeating the word "the" before items in a list is not necessary. Think of "the" as being distributed across all the elements.



However, there are some exceptions.





The first paragraph, which is the funniest paragraph of the article, and the second paragraph are extremely long.




Here, the "the" is necessary because you've entered and exited a dependent clause, which the "the" cannot distribute across.



Generally, if it might be confusing to a reader or listener, include the word "the". Similarly, if it would be distracting, omit it.


colloquialisms - How to colloquially express indifference other than "I could take it or leave it?"

I've recently seen "I could take it or leave it" as a way of saying "it's not that important to me." For example,



Q: "I love the taste of pumpkin pie. How do you feel about it?"
A: "I could take it or leave it."



But I'm much more accustomed to hearing "take it or leave it" used in the form of an ultimatum, especially in a negotiation setting -




Buyer: "How much for the shoes?"
Seller: "$100."
Buyer: "Will you take $50 for them?"
Seller: "I'd rather not go below $75."
Buyer: "I'll give you $60. Take it or leave it."



You know when you can't remember the name of that one guy in that movie, but you know that you know it? In the same way, I'm certain there's another (more correct) colloquial phrase to convey indifference without saying "I could take it or leave it" (and I've heard it before), but I can't remember what that is. Can anyone help me out?



It really just seems like "take it or leave it" has been improperly co-opted as a means to express indifference.



EDIT: After all of your inputs, I think I've remembered the statement I've been looking for.



"I could survive without it."




This may express more of a negative opinion of the thing in question than a neutral opinion, but it's definitely the phrase I have been seeking. Thanks all for your help.

Monday, June 2, 2014

word choice - "for which" vs. "for what"?







Q: What's the rule-of-thumb on "for which" vs. "for what" usage? I recently wrote the sentence:




"For which data is it appropriate to use method A instead of method B"



This seems right. But I can't articulate why "for what" seems wrong.

word choice - Twice vs Two Times



When I was in primary school we were told once by one teacher that if "twice" sounds correct in a sentence that you should never use "two times" instead. Has anyone else encountered this "rule" before? I have found the following similar questions (and more) but none of them answer my question.




Once/twice/thrice vs one/two/three times



"2 times", "twice" and "2X", when to use which and why?



two times or twice



Examples:



It has happened two times before. - Replace with "twice"




24 is two times as large as 12. - Replace with "twice"



It only happened the last two times. - "twice" sounds wrong, don't replace



Note: "It only happened the last one time" sounds weird. You would say "It only happened the last time".



So was our teacher's rule right or is "two times" correct and "twice" usually more correct?


Answer



This is a stylistic rule, not a rule of the English language. It's good writing advice, but violating it isn't "wrong" it's just less elegant.



Sunday, June 1, 2014

grammar - "...they were had been planning

"The gunman and Dr O'Neal had been engaged, and were had been planning to marry on 27 October - but that date passed without a wedding, according to CBS Chicago."
https://www.bbc.com/news/world-us-canada-46270195




Am I correct in saying were and had shouldn't be used next to each other in this sentence?

conditionals - Use of "may" or "might" and their inherent semantic difference

Under the American Heritage Dictionary's usage note for the verb "might" it says:




Usage Note: May or might? In many situations, the choice between these two verbs can be clarified by remembering that might is the past tense form of may, and that in English, a past tense form is used to refer not just to events that occurred in the past (She left yesterday), but to hypothetical, counterfactual, or remotely possible situations (If you left now, you'd get there on time.)




It's emphasizing that in the following:





If you left now, you'd get there on time.




We use the past tense "left" for a hypothetical, counterfactual, or remotely possible situation.



If I don't use the past tense "left" and instead use the present tense:





If you leave now, you'd get there on time.




I feel that this has the same meaning. Am I wrong?



Further:




Thus, the past tense form might is appropriate in this sentence about a future event that is a remote possibility: ‘If I won the lottery, I might buy a yacht’, which contrasts with the present-tense version that indicates an open possibility: ‘If I win the lottery, I may buy a yacht’.





The first example it describes as a "remote possibility", and the second is described as an "open possibility". Is this implying that "might" is used when there is a lower likelihood in the conditional statement? In the following examples:




  • If I won the lottery, I might buy a yacht.

  • If I won the lottery, I may buy a yacht.

  • If I win the lottery, I might buy a yacht.

  • If I win the lottery, I may buy a yacht.




I struggle to see a significant difference in their meanings, if any at all. All of them mean to me something like:




  • If in the future I win the lottery, I may/might by a yacht.



I don't consciously see any difference between "remote possibility" or "open possibility", or any distinction in probability. Am I wrong?



It then explains that when using "might" and "may" to denote past counter-factual or conditional situations their usage panel generally disapproves of "may" and favors "might":





Since about the 1960s, however, people have started using may have where might have would be expected (as in, ‘If he hadn't tripped, he may have won the race’). Although this usage is common in casual speech, it is considered unacceptable by the majority of the Usage Panel. In our 2012 survey, 97 percent of the Usage Panelists found the sentence ‘If John Lennon had not been shot, the Beatles might have gotten back together’ acceptable. Only a third of the Panel (32 percent) approved of the same sentence with may have replacing might have.




So I understand its disapproval by their usage panel. Next, it says another thing that I also don't understand:




Using may have for a past counterfactual situation instead of might have is not only frowned upon by the Panel but can also lead to confusion, since may have is best suited for a different kind of situation: present uncertainty about a past situation. Keeping the two forms distinct reduces ambiguity. ‘He may have drowned’, for example, is best used to mean that it is unknown whether the man drowned, not that the man narrowly escaped drowning.





Again, as far as I can tell both:




  • He may have drowned.
    or

  • He might have drowned.



In my opinion, could be read as:





  • He may have drowned, he may be dead.
    or

  • He might have drowned, he may be dead.
    or

  • He may have drowned, he's lucky to be alive.
    or

  • He might have drowned, he's lucky to be alive.



The very last sentence I would say is probably one where "might" sounds a bit strange, and "may" fits better. But the main point is that using "may" or "might" in the bare sentence:




  • He may/might have drowned.




To me doesn't necessarily distinguish between two meanings, nor do I think it suggests it (by itself at least).



Later in the explanation, it says that it's actually been suggested that "might" carries a lesser probability than "may", but I don't personally see this, at least in the examples I've seen.



So how wrong am I? I'm completely blind to nearly all of the distinctions drawn in the dictionary's usage note. Is it that I don't understand the real nuances, or is it that largely they've become interchangeable (a point it also mentioned in the usage notes).




When may and might are used to indicate possibility or probability, as in ‘He may lose his job’ or ‘We might go on vacation next year’, the two words are used almost interchangeably.





Addition:

It seems some (no idea what proportion) make the distinction between might to mean "might have happened (but we don't know) vs may to mean "may have happened (but didn't). This has been mentioned by at least one user who personally makes the distinction themself. I've checked Random House Kernerman Webster's College Dictionary and the entries are:




2.(used to express tentative possibility):
She might have called while you were out.
3.(used to express an unrealized possibility):
He might have been killed!




(2) is described as "tentative possibility", that is, "she might have called while you were out (but we don't know)", and (3) is described as "unrealized possibility", that is, "He might have been killed! (but wasn't)". It does distinguish between what it calls "tentative possibility" and "unrealized possibility", much as AHD's usage note does. If I understand correctly dictionaries usually list their definitions from most to least common, so it's interesting that it hasn't listed them in the opposite order: (3) and (2). I think this is a distinction I've just lost, or never had in the first place. However I like distinctions in words wherever they may be, so I'm happy to learn this and put it into practice, while of course not being a pedant and insisting that it's the "correct" usage of might and may. I'd also like to know if others make this distinction. Maybe you can let me know through a comment.