From what I know, in Simple Present, all verbs are followed by -s/es if the subject is a third-singular person. Such as makes, matches, buys, and studies.
I also know that if the verb is have, it becomes has if the subject is a third-singular person. And I'm wondering why it doesn't simply become haves, just like other verbs.
She has a book.
Why not: She haves a book.
So, my question is, what is the origin of the use of the verb has? I'm guessing euphony has something to do with it, but I need to support my guess.
Answer
As demanded in the comments, Silenius comment as answer:
Seems like the "-th" ending was supplanted by "-s" . Here's a relevant passage: "There is some evidence that verbs written with this [-th] ending in Early Modern English were pronounced as if they ended in -s, which was common in speech before becoming common in writing" [en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/-eth]. This would mean "hath" shifts to "has". – Silenus
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