expression choice - On the difference between "noun + infinitive" and "noun + present participle"

Infinitive and present participle can be used to modify the noun:

1. Infinitive:
   I had no time to read those books.


2. Present participle:
   There should be a law banning abortion.

In (1), "to read those books" modifies time, and in (2) "banning abortion" a law.
It is often said that infinitive is used to refer to the event in the future, while present participle is used to refer to the event happening in reality.

In (2), however, the sentence refers to the future because there is no law which bans abortion when this is uttered. Nevertheless, the present participle is felicitously used. The same thing holds of (3):

 3. I don't want a nanny bringing up our baby. — Sydney Sheldon, Tell me your dreams

In (3), also, the event of a nanny's bringing up a baby belongs to the future. Nevertheless, the present participle is used.

In these cases, can you say "there should be a law to ban abortion" or "I don't want a nanny to bring up our baby"? If the answer is no, why the present participle, but not infinitive, is used?